MPSC ATP 2022 question paper with answers

Questions, answers and explanations

1. Q1

   Match the column in view of the Right to Information Act, 2005:

   Sections:

   • a. Section 21
   • b. Section 22
   • c. Section 23
   • d. Section 24

   Provisions:

   • I. Act not to apply to certain organisations
   • II. Protection of action taken in good faith
   • III. Act to have overriding effect
   • IV. Bar of jurisdiction of courts
   1. a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
   2. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
   3. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
   4. a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I

   Answer: (C) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

   Under the RTI Act, s.21 protects action taken in good faith, s.22 gives the Act overriding effect, s.23 bars the jurisdiction of courts, and s.24 excludes certain intelligence/security organisations. Hence a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I. (Option (2) is illegible in the scan and reconstructed.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   RTI & RTS Acts · Source: RTI Act 2005, ss.21-24

2. Q2

   Match the following regarding the Maharashtra Right to Public Services Act, 2015:

   Sections:

   • a. Section 4
   • b. Section 5
   • c. Section 6
   • d. Section 7

   Provisions:

   • I. Monitoring status of application
   • II. Use of Information Technology for delivery of public service
   • III. Right to obtain public services within stipulated time limit
   • IV. Providing public services within stipulated time limit
   1. a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
   2. a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
   3. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
   4. a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II

   Answer: (C) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

   Section 4 confers the right to obtain public services within the stipulated time, s.5 obliges the designated officer to provide the service within that time, s.6 provides for monitoring the status of applications, and s.7 provides for use of information technology for delivery of services. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   RTI & RTS Acts · Source: Maharashtra Right to Public Services Act 2015, ss.4-7

3. Q3

   Every Public Authority shall publish the necessary particulars mentioned under Section 4(1)(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 ______ (complete the sentence).

   1. within 120 days from the enactment of this Act
   2. within 15 days from the date of him taking charge of office
   3. within 30 days from the date of commencement of the calendar year
   4. within 60 days from the date of commencement of this Act

   Answer: (A) within 120 days from the enactment of this Act

   Section 4(1)(b) requires every public authority to publish the 17 categories of particulars within one hundred and twenty days from the enactment of the Act. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   RTI & RTS Acts · Source: RTI Act 2005, s.4(1)(b)

4. Q4

   ______, an economist, developed the Sector model in the 1930s.

   1. Clarence Perry
   2. E.W. Burgess
   3. Homer Hoyt
   4. Harris and Ullman

   Answer: (C) Homer Hoyt

   The sector model (1939) was proposed by land economist Homer Hoyt, who observed that residential areas grow in wedge-shaped sectors along transport routes. Burgess gave the concentric zone model and Harris & Ullman the multiple nuclei model. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   Theories of Planning · Source: Hoyt, The Structure and Growth of Residential Neighborhoods in American Cities (1939)

5. Q5

   Sir Patrick Geddes, known as the 'Father of modern town planning', developed a new approach to regional and town planning based on integration of ______, called the Geddesian trio concept.

   1. Work - Folk - Place
   2. Work - Family - Place
   3. City - Satellite - Region
   4. Region - City - Place

   Answer: (A) Work - Folk - Place

   Geddes (adapting Le Play's Lieu-Travail-Famille) based his survey-before-plan approach on the triad Place-Work-Folk, i.e. the integration of environment, economy and people. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   Theories of Planning · Source: Patrick Geddes, Cities in Evolution (1915)

6. Q6

   In India, in Gandhinagar, residential sectors are planned on the concept of

   1. Neighbourhood
   2. Capital of Gujarat State
   3. Central Place theory
   4. Garden City

   Answer: (A) Neighbourhood

   Gandhinagar (planned by H.K. Mewada and Prakash Apte) is divided into 30 self-contained residential sectors, each designed as a neighbourhood unit with its own school, shops and community facilities. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   Theories of Planning · Source: Gandhinagar master plan (1960s); neighbourhood unit concept

7. Q7

   The concept of the neighbourhood unit was originally published by

   1. Clarence A. Perry
   2. Homer Hoyt
   3. Friedrich Engels
   4. Patrick Geddes

   Answer: (A) Clarence A. Perry

   Clarence Arthur Perry formulated the neighbourhood unit (centred on an elementary school, about 1/4 mile walking radius) in the 1929 Regional Plan of New York and its Environs. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   Theories of Planning · Source: C.A. Perry, The Neighborhood Unit (1929)

8. Q8

   After establishment of a Region for the purposes of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966,

   1. the limits of a Region cannot be altered
   2. the Region cannot be split up into two or more Regions
   3. the limits of a Region can be altered so as to include therein or to exclude therefrom such areas as may be specified in the notification
   4. the whole or part of the area comprising a Region shall not cease to be a Region or part thereof

   Answer: (C) the limits of a Region can be altered so as to include therein or to exclude therefrom such areas as may be specified in the notification

   Section 3 of the MRTP Act empowers the State Government, by notification, to alter the limits of a Region so as to include or exclude areas, to amalgamate or split up Regions, and to declare that an area shall cease to be a Region. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   Regional Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.3

9. Q9

   What are the duties of the Regional Board under the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966?

   1. To prepare a Regional Plan
   2. To prepare a Development Plan
   3. To prepare a Town Planning Scheme
   4. All of the above

   Answer: (A) To prepare a Regional Plan

   Under s.10 the Regional Board carries out surveys, prepares an existing-land-use map and prepares the Regional Plan; Development Plans and TP Schemes are prepared by Planning Authorities. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

   Regional Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.10

10. Q10

    When can the State Government revise a Regional Plan after it comes into operation under the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966?

    1. At any time
    2. At any time but not earlier than ten years
    3. At any time but not earlier than twenty years
    4. At any time but not earlier than five years

    Answer: (B) At any time but not earlier than ten years

    Section 20(1): if the State Government, at any time after a Regional Plan has come into operation but not earlier than ten years therefrom, is of opinion that revision is necessary, it may direct revision. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Regional Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.20(1)

11. Q11

    The Planning Authority has to submit a report to the State Government about the progress made in carrying out the survey and preparing the plans as per Section 21 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966. The report is a

    1. Monthly report
    2. Quarterly report
    3. Half-yearly report
    4. Yearly report

    Answer: (B) Quarterly report

    Section 21(1) requires the Planning Authority to submit a quarterly report to the State Government about the progress made in carrying out the survey and preparing the Development Plan. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.21(1)

12. Q12

    Any modification made by the State Government in the draft Development Plan to insert a new reservation on any land previously not affected is called

    1. Sanctioned modification
    2. Interim modification
    3. Modification of a substantial nature
    4. Minor modification

    Answer: (C) Modification of a substantial nature

    Section 22A defines 'change of a substantial nature' to include a new reservation of land not previously included in the draft plan; such modifications made under s.31(1) must be republished for objections. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.22A, 31(1)

13. Q13

    Fill in the blank: Section 26 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966 provides an extension of up to ____ months in the case of a Municipal Corporation having a population of 10 lakh or more but less than 1 crore, for the preparation and publication of notice of the draft Development Plan.

    1. 24
    2. 12
    3. 8
    4. 6

    Answer: (B) 12

    The proviso to s.26(1) allows the State Government to extend the two-year period by up to 24 months in aggregate for corporations of 1 crore+ population, 12 months for corporations of 10 lakh to 1 crore, and 6 months in other cases. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.26(1) proviso

14. Q14

    The Planning Authority shall submit the draft Development Plan to the State Government for sanction under section ____ of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966.

    1. 28(4)
    2. 26(1)
    3. 30(1)
    4. 37(A)

    Answer: (C) 30(1)

    Section 30(1) requires the Planning Authority to submit the draft Development Plan to the State Government for sanction, after considering the Planning Committee's report under s.28. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.30(1)

15. Q15

    Under the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, in case the area falls in the jurisdiction of a Metropolitan Planning Committee, the period for sanctioning the draft Development Plan can be extended by the State Government over the original period by up to

    1. 6 months
    2. 12 months
    3. 18 months
    4. 24 months

    Answer: (D) 24 months

    Section 31(1) requires sanction within six months of receipt; its first proviso permits extension up to 24 months in aggregate for areas within a Metropolitan Planning Committee, and 12 months in other areas. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.31(1) proviso

16. Q16

    Under the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, a modification proposal made in the final Development Plan shall be deemed to have lapsed if not submitted to the State Government within ______ from the publication of its notice in the Official Gazette.

    1. 30 days
    2. 90 days
    3. 6 months
    4. 1 year

    Answer: (D) 1 year

    Under s.37(1), the Planning Authority must submit the modification proposal to the State Government within one year from publication of the notice; otherwise the proposal is deemed to have lapsed. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.37(1)

17. Q17

    Any applicant aggrieved by an order under Section 45 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966 ______ may prefer an appeal to the State Government or to an officer appointed by the State Government.

    1. granting permission (on conditions)
    2. refusing permission
    3. Both (1) and (2)
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (B) refusing permission

    Official MPSC final key: (2). Section 47 of the MRTP Act gives an appeal to the State Government (or an appointed officer) to an applicant aggrieved by an order under s.45 refusing permission (or granting it on conditions); MPSC's key treats refusal as the answer.

    Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.47

18. Q18

    Within one year from the date of confirmation of a purchase notice under Section 49 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, it is necessary for the Appropriate Authority to

    1. Complete the land acquisition procedure
    2. Make an application to acquire the land
    3. Pay compensation to the land owner
    4. Publish a declaration under Section 126(4) of the MRTP Act, 1966

    Answer: (B) Make an application to acquire the land

    Section 49(7): if within one year of confirmation of the purchase notice the Appropriate Authority fails to make an application to acquire the land under s.126, the reservation lapses and the land is released to the owner. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.49(7)

19. Q19

    A draft Town Planning Scheme consists of

    1. Physical planning and valuation of the scheme
    2. Physical planning of the scheme only
    3. The financial aspects of the Town Planning Scheme only
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (A) Physical planning and valuation of the scheme

    The draft scheme under ss.59 and 61 contains both the physical proposals (reconstituted plots, roads, reservations) and the financial/valuation particulars (estimated cost, original and final values, contributions); the Arbitrator later splits it into a preliminary (physical) and a final (valuation) scheme. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.59, 61, 72

20. Q20

    Among the following options, select the correct option regarding 'final plot' in a Town Planning Scheme.

    1. It means the value of the original plot without reference to any improvements contemplated in the scheme
    2. It is the result of reconstitution of the original plot in its area and boundaries so as to render it more suitable for development purposes
    3. It means the original holding with well defined boundaries as found on the date of declaration of intention to make the scheme
    4. Both (2) and (3) above

    Answer: (B) It is the result of reconstitution of the original plot in its area and boundaries so as to render it more suitable for development purposes

    A final plot is the plot allotted after reconstitution of the original plot (altering its shape, area and boundaries) under the scheme to make it fit for building purposes; option (3) describes an original plot and option (1) its original value. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.2(11), 65

21. Q21

    After sanction of a draft Town Planning Scheme, all lands required by the Appropriate Authority for which of the following purposes shall vest absolutely in the Appropriate Authority free from all encumbrances?

    1. The allotment or reservation of land for open spaces, gardens, recreation grounds
    2. The allotment or reservation of land for social infrastructure
    3. The allotment of land for sale by the Planning Authority
    4. The allotment or reservation of land for water supply

    Answer: (D) The allotment or reservation of land for water supply

    Section 68A vests, on sanction of the draft scheme, the lands required for the purposes in s.59(1)(b)(ii-b) roads, (ii-e) drainage, (ii-f) lighting and (ii-g) water supply. Open spaces/gardens fall under (ii-d) and vest only on the final scheme (s.88). Note: disputed; s.88 (as amended) vests all lands required by the Planning Authority when the preliminary scheme comes into force, so options (1), (2) and (4) all fit at that later stage. On the 'sanction of draft scheme' wording, the s.68A purposes (roads, drainage, lighting, water supply) make option (4) the most defensible. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.68A, 59(1)(b)

22. Q22

    The role of the Arbitrator in a Town Planning Scheme as per the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966 is to

    1. finalise the draft Town Planning Scheme and prepare the preliminary scheme only
    2. prepare the preliminary Town Planning Scheme, the valuation part being prepared by the Tribunal
    3. prepare the preliminary and final Town Planning Schemes
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (C) prepare the preliminary and final Town Planning Schemes

    Under s.72 the Arbitrator, after hearing the parties, divides the sanctioned draft scheme into a preliminary scheme (physical works and reconstitution) and a final scheme (valuation, contributions and compensation) and submits both to Government. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.72

23. Q23

    Regarding the decisions of the Arbitrator under Section 72 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, choose the correct option.

    1. Except in matters arising out of physical planning and some of the points regarding valuation, every decision of the Arbitrator shall be final
    2. Every decision of the Arbitrator shall be final
    3. The Arbitrator's decision shall be final and conclusive and binding on all parties except the Planning Authority
    4. Except in matters arising out of some of the points regarding valuation, every decision of the Arbitrator shall be final

    Answer: (D) Except in matters arising out of some of the points regarding valuation, every decision of the Arbitrator shall be final

    Under ss.73-74, decisions of the Arbitrator are final and binding on all parties including the Planning Authority, except decisions on the valuation-related clauses of s.72(3) (values, compensation, contribution), which may be referred to the Tribunal of Appeal. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.72(3), 73, 74

24. Q24

    For a Town Planning Scheme, the Tribunal of Appeal shall consist of

    1. President
    2. Two Assessors
    3. Arbitrator
    4. Both (1) and (2)

    Answer: (D) Both (1) and (2)

    The Tribunal of Appeal consists of a President (the District Judge or a person qualified to be one) and two assessors; the Arbitrator, whose decisions are appealed against, is not a member. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.75

25. Q25

    The definition of 'semi-final value' is the following:

    1. The value of the original plot with reference to the improvements contemplated in the scheme on the assumption that the scheme has been completed
    2. The value of the final plot without reference to any improvements contemplated in the scheme
    3. The value of the final plot without reference to any improvements contemplated in the scheme other than improvements due to alteration of its boundaries
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (C) The value of the final plot without reference to any improvements contemplated in the scheme other than improvements due to alteration of its boundaries

    Semi-final value is the value of the final plot ignoring the scheme's improvements except those due to alteration of its boundaries; increment is final value minus this semi-final value, and half of it is the contribution. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.97 (Explanation)

26. Q26

    In estimating the value of increment in a Town Planning Scheme,

    1. the value of only trees, crops and wells shall be taken into consideration
    2. the value of buildings or other works erected or in the course of erection on such plot shall not be taken into consideration
    3. the value of only fencing and compound wall shall be taken into consideration
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (B) the value of buildings or other works erected or in the course of erection on such plot shall not be taken into consideration

    When estimating original, semi-final and final values for increment, the value of buildings or other works erected or in the course of erection on the plot is excluded, so that only land value is compared. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.97

27. Q27

    The Gujarat Government has made special provision for Local Area Plan in the Gujarat Town Planning and Urban Development Act, 1976 vide Section

    1. 70A
    2. 76A
    3. 77
    4. 78

    Answer: (B) 76A

    Gujarat introduced the Local Area Plan as a statutory tool for densified redevelopment of existing built-up areas through the newly inserted Section 76A of the GTPUDA, 1976. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Local Area Plan · Source: GTPUDA 1976, s.76A

28. Q28

    A Local Area Plan is devised

    1. for greenfield development
    2. to improve and enhance the existing developed areas
    3. for development of a region
    4. to define the use of land in the total area of a Planning Authority

    Answer: (B) to improve and enhance the existing developed areas

    A Local Area Plan is a micro-level plan for an already developed (brownfield) area such as a core city or TOD corridor, to improve infrastructure, densify and redevelop; greenfield areas are handled by TP Schemes and the whole area by the DP. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Local Area Plan · Source: UDCPR 2020; URDPFI Guidelines 2014; GTPUDA s.76A

29. Q29

    If the provisions of a 'Local Area Plan' are not consistent with the UDCPR,

    1. then the provisions of the Local Area Plan shall prevail
    2. then the particulars shall be referred to the Director of Town Planning
    3. then the provisions of UDCPR shall prevail
    4. the Planning Authority may propose a modification under Section 37 of the MRTP Act, 1966 so as to make it suitable for that particular provision of the Local Area Plan

    Answer: (A) then the provisions of the Local Area Plan shall prevail

    UDCPR provides that where a Local Area Plan has been sanctioned for an area, its specific provisions shall prevail over the general provisions of the UDCPR in case of inconsistency, since the LAP is a more detailed area-specific plan. Note: the exact wording of the UDCPR LAP clause could not be checked; key retained as most defensible. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Local Area Plan · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. on Local Area Plan

30. Q30

    As per UDCPR, 'Special Building' means

    1. any multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height measured from ground level
    2. a building for educational, assembly or mercantile use having built-up area of 300 sq.m or more on any floor irrespective of height
    3. a building for educational, assembly or mercantile use having total built-up area of 500 sq.m or more irrespective of height
    4. any multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height (excluding parking floors up to 6 m height)

    Answer: (A) any multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height measured from ground level

    UDCPR 2020 Reg. 1.3 (as sanctioned) defines a special building as (i) any multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height measured from ground level, or (ii) buildings for educational, assembly, mercantile, institutional, industrial, storage and hazardous occupancies having built-up area of 500 sq.m or more on any floor irrespective of height. Option (2) wrongly says 300 sq.m, option (3) says total built-up area instead of 'on any floor', and the parking-floor exclusion in option (4) is not in the sanctioned definition. (The scan prints '240 m' and '60 m' for 24 m and 6 m.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 1.3 (definitions)

31. Q31

    For a building/layout permission, a proposal is received by the authority from the owner after compliance of the objections raised by the authority. Which of the following correctly applies regarding the scrutiny fee?

    1. Scrutiny fee shall be calculated afresh and levied
    2. Scrutiny fee shall be calculated afresh and levied, on condition that it shall be adjusted along with the security deposit for refund after the completion certificate is issued
    3. Scrutiny fee shall be calculated afresh with 50% concession for such permissions
    4. No scrutiny fee shall be levied again for such proposals

    Answer: (D) No scrutiny fee shall be levied again for such proposals

    Note (i) under UDCPR Reg. 2.2.12 states that no scrutiny fee shall be levied if the proposal is received after compliance of the objections raised by the authority; fee is charged again only for revised permissions. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 2.2.12

32. Q32

    On a plot of 300 sq.m area in a sanctioned layout, you want to construct a residential building of ground + 2 storeys of 450 sq.m total built-up area, including ancillary area FSI. As per UDCPR, such a building falls under which category?

    1. Low Risk
    2. Moderate Risk
    3. High Risk
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (B) Moderate Risk

    UDCPR treats buildings on plots up to 150 sq.m as low risk and on plots above 150 sq.m up to 300 sq.m as moderate risk (permission on submission as per Appendix K); a 300 sq.m plot is therefore moderate risk. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 2.1.2 / 2.2 and Appendix K

33. Q33

    The criterion for applicability of inclusive housing for Municipal Corporations depends upon

    1. the slope of the plot under the development permission
    2. the proposed built-up area under the development permission
    3. population as per the latest census
    4. Both (1) and (2)

    Answer: (C) population as per the latest census

    UDCPR Reg. 3.8 makes inclusive housing (20% of plot area/tenements for EWS/LIG on plots of 4000 sq.m and above) applicable in Municipal Corporations having population of 10 lakh or more as per the latest census; slope and built-up area are not criteria. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 3.8

34. Q34

    In a public/semi-public zone, which of the following uses shall be permissible?

    1. Home for the aged, hospitals, sanatoria, dispensary, health centre
    2. Residential use up to 25%
    3. Commercial use up to 25%
    4. All the uses mentioned in (1), (2) and (3)

    Answer: (A) Home for the aged, hospitals, sanatoria, dispensary, health centre

    The public/semi-public zone is meant for institutional and social facilities such as homes for the aged, hospitals, sanatoria, dispensaries and health centres. UDCPR permits only limited ancillary commercial use (about 15%) in this zone, not 25% residential or 25% commercial use, so only option (1) is correct. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Ch. 4 (uses permissible in Public/Semi-public zone)

35. Q35

    Lands in the Industrial Zone of a Development Plan/Regional Plan may be utilised for any of the permissible uses in the Residential and Commercial Zone, subject to the provision that in the layout or sub-division of such land,

    1. 10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities
    2. 10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities up to 2 ha area and 15% for the area over and above 2 ha
    3. 15% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities
    4. for land admeasuring more than 2 ha, 10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities

    Answer: (B) 10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities up to 2 ha area and 15% for the area over and above 2 ha

    UDCPR Reg. 4.8.1 allows land in the Industrial Zone to be used for residential/commercial uses subject to providing land for public utilities and amenities: 10% of the plot area for plots up to 2 ha and 15% for plots above 2 ha (half of it for gardens/recreation-type non-buildable uses), in addition to the normal recreational open space. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 4.8.1(b)(v)

36. Q36

    Which of the following statements is correct for Floor Space Index (FSI) in non-congested areas for residential and residential with mixed users?

    1. FSI on account of both payment of premium and maximum permissible TDR loading increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts
    2. FSI on account of payment of premium increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts
    3. FSI on account of maximum permissible TDR loading increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (C) FSI on account of maximum permissible TDR loading increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts

    In UDCPR Table 6-A the basic FSI (1.10) and premium FSI (0.50 for roads 9 m and above) remain constant, while the maximum permissible TDR loading rises with road width (e.g. 0.40 up to 12 m to 1.40 for 30 m and above). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 6.1, Table 6-A

37. Q37

    For redevelopment of a tenanted building more than 30 years old, the permissible FSI shall be

    1. Permissible FSI potential under Regulation 6.1 or 6.3 (Basic FSI + Premium FSI + permissible TDR loading)
    2. FSI consumed by the existing authorised building including TDR, premium FSI, etc.
    3. FSI consumed by the existing authorised building including TDR, premium FSI, etc., plus 50% incentive FSI of the rehab area required for rehabilitation of tenants
    4. Permissible FSI potential under Regulation 6.1 or 6.3 or the FSI consumed by the existing authorised building, whichever is more; in addition, 50% incentive FSI of the rehab area required for rehabilitation of tenants

    Answer: (D) Permissible FSI potential under Regulation 6.1 or 6.3 or the FSI consumed by the existing authorised building, whichever is more; in addition, 50% incentive FSI of the rehab area required for rehabilitation of tenants

    UDCPR Reg. 7.5 for redevelopment of old tenanted buildings permits the higher of the permissible FSI potential (Reg. 6.1/6.3) or the existing authorised FSI consumed, plus an incentive FSI of 50% of the rehabilitation area for tenants. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 7.5

38. Q38

    For development of Housing for EWS/LIG under UDCPR, which of the following conditions has to be followed?

    1. Total tenements of size up to 30 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed
    2. Total tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed
    3. Total tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed and out of that 40% tenements shall be of built-up area not more than 30 sq.m
    4. Total tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed and out of that 25% tenements shall be of built-up area not more than 30 sq.m

    Answer: (C) Total tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed and out of that 40% tenements shall be of built-up area not more than 30 sq.m

    UDCPR Reg. 7.7 (Development of Housing for EWS/LIG) requires all tenements to be of up to 50 sq.m built-up area, of which at least 40% shall be of not more than 30 sq.m, in return for additional FSI (premium about 15% of the ASR land rate). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 7.7

39. Q39

    As per UDCPR, for development of Information Technology Establishments, additional FSI above 100% and up to 200% shall be permissible on plots having an access road of minimum ____ width.

    1. 9 m
    2. 12 m
    3. 15 m
    4. 18 m

    Answer: (D) 18 m

    UDCPR Reg. 7.8 permits additional FSI up to 200% over the basic FSI for IT/ITES establishments by charging a premium of 20% of the ASR rate; additional FSI above 100% and up to 200% is permissible only on plots having an access road of minimum 18 m width. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 7.8

40. Q40

    In the Affordable Housing Scheme under UDCPR, the FSI to be utilised shall be in the proportion of

    1. 1:3 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/3rd and 2/3rd part of the land respectively
    2. 1:4 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/4th and 3/4th part of the land respectively
    3. 1:3 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/4th and 3/4th part of the land respectively
    4. 1:4 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/3rd and 2/3rd part of the land respectively

    Answer: (C) 1:3 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/4th and 3/4th part of the land respectively

    Under the UDCPR affordable housing provision, FSI is used in the ratio 1:3 for the affordable housing component and the free-sale component, located on 1/4th and 3/4th of the land respectively (the affordable component being handed over to the Authority). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 14.3

41. Q41

    As per UDCPR, in a Regional Plan area, what is the minimum contiguous land required at one place to be declared as an Integrated Township Project in the afforestation zone?

    1. 20 Ha
    2. 25 Ha
    3. 40 Ha
    4. 100 Ha

    Answer: (C) 40 Ha

    UDCPR Reg. 14.1.1 prescribes a minimum contiguous area of 40 ha for an ITP in Regional Plan areas, including lands in agriculture/afforestation-type zones. Note: the general 40 ha (100 acres) minimum is verified, but whether a different figure applies specifically in the afforestation zone could not be checked. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 14.1.1

42. Q42

    The time period for filing an appeal under Section 124G of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, from receipt of the assessment notice under sub-section (2) of Section 124E, is

    1. Forty days
    2. Sixty days
    3. Thirty days
    4. Forty-five days

    Answer: (D) Forty-five days

    Section 124G provides an appeal against an assessment of development charge under s.124E to the State Government or an officer not below the rank of Deputy Secretary. Under s.124H, such an appeal is entertained only if it is filed within forty-five days of receipt of the assessment notice under s.124E(2) (delay condonable for sufficient cause) and the amount claimed has been deposited. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.124G, 124H

43. Q43

    What should be the rate of development charge for land development for hospital use, without construction operation?

    1. 0.5 percent of ASR rate of developed land
    2. 0.75 percent of ASR rate of developed land
    3. 100 percent of ASR rate of developed land
    4. 2.00 percent of ASR rate of developed land

    Answer: (A) 0.5 percent of ASR rate of developed land

    Under s.124B and the Second Schedule, development charge for land development (without construction) for non-commercial, non-industrial uses such as hospitals is levied at 0.5% of the ASR rate of developed land (building development attracts higher rates). Low confidence: the Schedule text could not be checked. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.124B and Second Schedule

44. Q44

    As per Section 124I of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, the interest rate on the amount of enhanced assessment or of refund shall be

    1. 18% per annum
    2. 12% per annum
    3. 15% per annum
    4. 24% per annum

    Answer: (A) 18% per annum

    Section 124I provides interest at 18% per annum on enhanced assessment from the date of original assessment notice till recovery, and on refunds from the date of payment till refund. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.124I

45. Q45

    As per Section 124F of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, which of the following developments, subject to conditions, may be partially exempted from payment of development charge?

    1. Warehouse
    2. Godown
    3. Educational, Medical or Charitable Institutions
    4. All of the above

    Answer: (D) All of the above

    Section 124F(1) fully exempts Government and local authority land; s.124F(2) lets the State Government partially exempt development by a warehouse or godown or by any educational, medical or charitable institution. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.124F(2)

46. Q46

    If development permission is refused by the Planning Authority under Section 45 of the MRTP Act, an aggrieved applicant may file an appeal to the State Government within ____ days.

    1. 60
    2. 45
    3. 40
    4. 30

    Answer: (C) 40

    Section 47 allows an appeal within forty days of communication of the order under s.45 refusing permission or granting it with conditions. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.47

47. Q47

    Traffic/transportation studies are mainly required to be conducted to

    1. collect data of buildings fronting on the road
    2. collect data of layouts fronting on the road
    3. determine the type of traffic which is being accommodated by the road
    4. collect data of animals which come across the road

    Answer: (C) determine the type of traffic which is being accommodated by the road

    Traffic surveys (volume, composition, speed, O-D) establish the type and quantum of traffic using a road, which is the basis for planning and design of road improvements. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Transportation · Source: Kadiyali, Traffic Engineering & Transport Planning; IRC guidelines

48. Q48

    The number of vehicles moving in a specified direction on a given roadway or lane that pass a given point or cross-section during a specified unit of time is called

    1. Traffic volume
    2. Traffic density
    3. Highway capacity
    4. Basic capacity

    Answer: (A) Traffic volume

    Traffic volume (flow) is vehicles passing a point per unit time; density is vehicles per unit length of road, and capacity is the maximum flow the road can carry. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Transportation · Source: IRC:106-1990; traffic engineering fundamentals

49. Q49

    In case of ________, the vehicles are allowed to be parked on the kerb.

    1. on-street parking
    2. off-street parking
    3. reserved parking
    4. controlled parking

    Answer: (A) on-street parking

    On-street (kerb) parking is parking along the kerb of the carriageway itself; off-street parking is provided in separate lots or structures away from the carriageway. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Transportation · Source: Traffic engineering - parking studies

50. Q50

    Which study involves measurement of the number and type of vehicles crossing a section of a road per unit time at a selected period?

    1. Speed study
    2. Traffic volume study
    3. Parking study
    4. Origin and destination study

    Answer: (B) Traffic volume study

    A traffic volume (classified count) study counts the number and type of vehicles crossing a road section per unit time, giving flow and composition. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Transportation · Source: IRC:SP:19; Kadiyali, Traffic Engineering

51. Q51

    In September 2022, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) directed the State of Maharashtra to pay Rs. 12,000 crore as environmental compensation for improper management of

    1. solid and liquid waste
    2. air pollution
    3. green spaces
    4. coastal areas

    Answer: (A) solid and liquid waste

    In September 2022 the NGT imposed Rs. 12,000 crore environmental compensation on Maharashtra for failing to manage solid and liquid waste (untreated sewage and legacy waste), to be spent on remediation. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Environment · Source: NGT order, OA 606/2018, Sept 2022

52. Q52

    Coastal Regulation Zone notifications were issued by the Central Government to conserve and protect coastal stretches and marine areas under the powers conferred by the

    1. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    2. Coastal Regulation Zone Policy, 1986
    3. Coastal Regulation Zone Act, 2011
    4. National Environment Policy, 2006

    Answer: (A) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

    CRZ notifications of 1991, 2011 and 2019 were issued under s.3(1) and s.3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 read with Rule 5(3) of the EP Rules; there is no CRZ Act. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Environment · Source: Environment (Protection) Act 1986, s.3; CRZ Notification 2019

53. Q53

    According to the CRZ Notification, 2019, ______ areas are environmentally most critical.

    1. CRZ-I
    2. CRZ-II
    3. CRZ-III
    4. CRZ-IV

    Answer: (A) CRZ-I

    CRZ-I covers ecologically sensitive areas (mangroves, coral reefs, etc.) and the inter-tidal zone, and is the most critical and most restricted category under CRZ 2019. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Environment · Source: CRZ Notification 2019, para 4

54. Q54

    In the then Bombay Province, due to the need for providing public facilities such as water, roads, etc., the 'Bombay Town Planning Act' was enacted in the year

    1. 1901
    2. 1913
    3. 1915
    4. 1911

    Answer: (C) 1915

    The Bombay Town Planning Act, 1915 was the first town planning legislation in India and introduced Town Planning Schemes; it was replaced by the Bombay TP Act 1954 and later the MRTP Act 1966. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: Bombay Town Planning Act, 1915

55. Q55

    As per Section 4(1) of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, for the purpose of planning the development and use of land in the region, the State Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute a ______ for the region.

    1. Regional Planning Board
    2. Ministry for Planning
    3. Municipal Planning Office
    4. Department of Regulation for Planning

    Answer: (A) Regional Planning Board

    Section 4(1) requires the State Government to constitute a Regional Planning Board by notification for planning the development and use of land in a region established under s.3. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Regional Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.4(1)

56. Q56

    Chapter XV of the Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949 provides for

    1. Drains and Drainage
    2. Streets
    3. Water Supply
    4. Building Regulations

    Answer: (D) Building Regulations

    In the Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949, Chapter XIV deals with streets and Chapter XV with building regulations (notice of new building s.253 onwards); drainage and water supply come in earlier chapters. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act 1949, Chapter XV

57. Q57

    According to Section 3(1) of the Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949, specification of larger urban areas and constitution of corporations is in accordance with Article ______ of the Constitution of India.

    1. 245D(2)
    2. 243Q(1)
    3. 246A(1)
    4. 249B(3)

    Answer: (B) 243Q(1)

    Article 243Q (inserted by the 74th Amendment) provides for constitution of Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils and Municipal Corporations for transitional, smaller and larger urban areas; s.3(1) specifies larger urban areas in accordance with Art. 243Q(1). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: Constitution of India, Art. 243Q; MMC Act 1949, s.3(1)

58. Q58

    Match the following in view of provisions of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966:

    Sections:

    • a. Section 148
    • b. Section 156
    • c. Section 161
    • d. Section 165

    Provisions:

    • I. Wajib-ul-Arz
    • II. Nistar Patrak
    • III. Record of Rights
    • IV. Land Records
    1. a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
    2. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
    3. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
    4. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

    Answer: (B) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I

    Under the MLRC, s.148 is Record of Rights, s.156 is Land Records, s.161 is Nistar Patrak and s.165 is Wajib-ul-arz, i.e. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I. (Options (2) and (4) are partly illegible in the scan and reconstructed.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: MLRC 1966, ss.148, 156, 161, 165

59. Q59

    Section 16 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with

    1. Protection of action taken in good faith
    2. Government laboratories
    3. Report of Government analyst
    4. Offences by companies

    Answer: (D) Offences by companies

    Section 16 of the EP Act deals with offences by companies; s.17 offences by Government departments, s.12 environmental laboratories, s.14 reports of Government analysts and s.18 protection of action taken in good faith. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Environment · Source: Environment (Protection) Act 1986, s.16

60. Q60

    As per Section 2(l) of the Maharashtra Stamp Act, 1958, '______' includes every document by which any right or liability is, or purports to be, created, transferred, limited, extended, extinguished or recorded.

    1. Letter of Credit
    2. Promissory Note
    3. Bill of Exchange
    4. Instrument

    Answer: (D) Instrument

    Section 2(l) of the Maharashtra Stamp Act defines 'instrument' as every document by which any right or liability is created, transferred, limited, extended, extinguished or recorded. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: Maharashtra Stamp Act 1958, s.2(l)

61. Q61

    The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act came into force on

    1. 1st May, 1991
    2. 1st October, 1993
    3. 1st June, 1992
    4. 1st June, 1993

    Answer: (D) 1st June, 1993

    The Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, inserting Part IXA on Municipalities, came into force on 1 June 1993 (the 73rd Amendment on 24 April 1993). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: Constitution (74th Amendment) Act 1992

62. Q62

    Which of the following statements is correct in respect of jurisdiction of courts under Section 144 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966?

    1. It lays down the jurisdiction of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class to try offences punishable under this Act
    2. It lays down the jurisdiction of the Bombay City Civil Court
    3. It lays down the provision regarding sanction for prosecution
    4. It is the provision regarding penalty for obstructing a contractor or removing a mark

    Answer: (A) It lays down the jurisdiction of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class to try offences punishable under this Act

    Section 144 provides that no court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class shall try any offence punishable under the MRTP Act. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.144

63. Q63

    Find the odd man out among the municipal authorities charged with execution of the Act under Section 7 of the Maharashtra Municipal Councils, Nagar Panchayats and Industrial Townships Act, 1965.

    1. The Director General
    2. The Council
    3. The Standing Committee
    4. The Chief Officer

    Answer: (A) The Director General

    Section 7 names the Council, the Standing Committee, the Subject Committees, the President and the Chief Officer as municipal authorities; a 'Director General' is not one of them. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: Maharashtra Municipal Councils Act 1965, s.7

64. Q64

    The 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India provides for

    1. Revision in powers of the Prime Minister
    2. Election of Governor
    3. Change in tenure of the President
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    The 73rd Amendment (1992) inserted Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule providing for Panchayati Raj institutions; it has nothing to do with the Prime Minister, Governor or President. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act 1992, Part IX

65. Q65

    As per Section 42(1) of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, land used for agricultural purpose can be used for any non-agricultural purpose with the permission of the

    1. Governor
    2. Chief Minister
    3. Tahsildar
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Under s.42 of the MLRC, agricultural land may be used for a non-agricultural purpose only with the permission of the Collector; none of the listed authorities is correct. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Acts & Rules · Source: MLRC 1966, s.42

66. Q66

    The date for determination of market value under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 shall be

    1. the date of notification issued under Section 11
    2. the date of declaration of award under Section 25
    3. the date of publication of the declaration under Section 19
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (A) the date of notification issued under Section 11

    Explanation to s.26(1) of RFCTLARR 2013: the market value is determined as on the date on which the preliminary notification under s.11 is issued. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.26(1)

67. Q67

    The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 came into force on

    1. 15th December, 2013
    2. 13th December, 2013
    3. 1st January, 2014
    4. 26th January, 2014

    Answer: (C) 1st January, 2014

    The RFCTLARR Act received assent on 26 September 2013 and was brought into force from 1 January 2014 by notification under s.1(3). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.1(3)

68. Q68

    Which judicial authority has jurisdiction to entertain any dispute relating to land acquisition in respect of which the Collector or the Authority is empowered by or under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?

    1. Senior Division Judge of the District Court
    2. Junior Division Judge of the District Court having the power to grant injunction
    3. Hon. High Court or Hon. Supreme Court
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (C) Hon. High Court or Hon. Supreme Court

    Section 63 bars every civil court other than the High Court and the Supreme Court from entertaining any dispute relating to land acquisition in respect of which the Collector or the LARR Authority is empowered, and no injunction may be granted by other courts. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.63

69. Q69

    As per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, the time limit for filing objections for any land notified under Section 11(1), from the date of publication of the preliminary notification, is

    1. Fifteen days
    2. Thirty days
    3. Forty-five days
    4. Sixty days

    Answer: (D) Sixty days

    Section 15(1) allows any person interested to file objections to the area, justification of public purpose or SIA findings within sixty days from publication of the s.11 preliminary notification. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.15(1)

70. Q70

    The appropriate Government shall be at liberty to withdraw from the acquisition of any land of which

    1. possession of the land has not been taken
    2. Section 11 notification has not been issued
    3. Section 19 declaration has not been published
    4. award has not been declared

    Answer: (A) possession of the land has not been taken

    Section 93(1) permits the appropriate Government to withdraw from acquisition of any land of which possession has not been taken, with compensation for damage under s.93(2). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.93

71. Q71

    As per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, the market value of land is determined by the Collector under

    1. Section 28
    2. Section 23
    3. Section 26
    4. Section 30

    Answer: (C) Section 26

    Section 26 lays down how the Collector determines market value (stamp-duty value, average of sale prices, or consented amount, whichever is higher); s.28 lists other parameters and s.30 gives solatium. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.26

72. Q72

    Regarding the purpose for which land is originally sought to be acquired under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, which statement is correct?

    1. No change from the purpose or related purposes for which the land is originally sought to be acquired shall be allowed, provided that if the land is rendered unusable for that purpose, the appropriate Government may use it for any other public purpose
    2. It can be changed for any public purpose, subject to prior approval of the Divisional Commissioner
    3. It can be changed in the case of an emergency for a purpose having priority
    4. It cannot be changed in any circumstances and the land shall be returned to the original owners or their legal heirs

    Answer: (A) No change from the purpose or related purposes for which the land is originally sought to be acquired shall be allowed, provided that if the land is rendered unusable for that purpose, the appropriate Government may use it for any other public purpose

    Section 99 prohibits change of purpose from that for which the land was acquired, except that if the land is rendered unusable for that purpose due to a fundamental change, the Government may use it for any other public purpose. (Options (3)-(4) are run together in the scan and reconstructed.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.99

73. Q73

    As per Section 33 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, the Collector may correct any clerical or arithmetical mistake in an award not later than ______ from the date of the award.

    1. Six months
    2. One month
    3. Two months
    4. Nine months

    Answer: (A) Six months

    Section 33(1) allows the Collector to correct clerical or arithmetical mistakes in an award at any time but not later than six months from the date of the award (or of the reference under s.64). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.33(1)

74. Q74

    Consider the following as special characteristics of landed property:

    (i) Heterogeneity and lack of standardisation

    (ii) Total supply of land is not fixed

    (iii) No effect of various legislations

    (iv) Total supply of land is fixed

    Which of the above are correct?

    1. Only (i) and (ii)
    2. Only (ii) and (iii)
    3. Only (i) and (iii)
    4. Only (i) and (iv)

    Answer: (D) Only (i) and (iv)

    Land is heterogeneous (no two parcels are identical) and its total supply is fixed; land markets are heavily affected by legislation (zoning, rent control, ceiling), so (ii) and (iii) are wrong. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Valuation · Source: Principles of valuation - characteristics of real estate

75. Q75

    The capitalised value required to be paid once and for all in order to receive an annual income of Re. 1 for a specified period of time at a specified rate of return is

    1. Sinking fund
    2. Years' Purchase
    3. Annuity
    4. Market value

    Answer: (B) Years' Purchase

    Years' Purchase is the present value of Re. 1 per annum for n years (or in perpetuity) at a given rate; capital value = net income x YP. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Valuation Tables · Source: Valuation tables - Years' Purchase (PV of Re.1 p.a.)

76. Q76

    The 'land value in reversion' is applicable in the valuation of

    1. property rented out for a fixed period only
    2. property rented out in perpetuity only
    3. both (1) and (2)
    4. neither (1) nor (2)

    Answer: (A) property rented out for a fixed period only

    Reversionary value arises only when a lease is for a fixed term, at the end of which the land/property reverts to the lessor; it is deferred at PV of Re.1 for the unexpired term. A perpetual lease has no reversion. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Valuation · Source: Valuation - leasehold interests and reversion

77. Q77

    'Rack rent' can be defined as

    1. the rent reserved under the head lease and payable to the first lessor, in case of sub-leased property
    2. the best possible rent at which the property can be let, i.e. full rent neither frozen nor circumscribed by any statute in force
    3. the difference between an improved rent and the head rent
    4. the rent fixed between the landlord and the tenant at the inception of the tenancy

    Answer: (B) the best possible rent at which the property can be let, i.e. full rent neither frozen nor circumscribed by any statute in force

    Rack rent is the full annual rental value obtainable in the open market, not restricted by any rent-control statute; option (1) is head rent and (3) is profit rent. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Valuation · Source: Valuation - types of rent

78. Q78

    The net annual payment (return on investment) for the capital invested in an immovable property is

    1. Present value
    2. Capital value
    3. Sinking fund
    4. Annuity

    Answer: (D) Annuity

    An annuity is the series of equal annual payments receivable in return for a capital sum invested; the net annual return on capital invested in property is thus treated as an annuity. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Valuation Tables · Source: Valuation tables - annuity

79. Q79

    If the Years' Purchase (Y.P.) in perpetuity is 12.5, then the rate of return is

    1. 10%
    2. 6%
    3. 12%
    4. 8%

    Answer: (D) 8%

    YP in perpetuity = 100 / rate of interest, so rate = 100 / 12.5 = 8%. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Valuation · Source: Valuation tables - YP in perpetuity = 100/i

80. Q80

    What is the present value of Re. 1 receivable at the end of 'n' years at 'i' rate of interest per annum?

    1. (1+i)^n - 1
    2. ((1+i)^n - 1)/i
    3. i/((1+i)^n - 1)
    4. 1/(1+i)^n

    Answer: (D) 1/(1+i)^n

    Official MPSC final key: (4). Present value of Re.1 due after n years at rate i = 1/(1+i)^n. Option text reconstructed from a garbled scan; the correct formula is placed at option (4) as per the official key.

    Valuation Tables · Source: Valuation tables - Present value of Re.1

81. Q81

    The belting method of valuation is suitable for plots having frontage on

    1. both sides
    2. only one side
    3. three sides
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (B) only one side

    The belting method values deep plots that have a road on one side, dividing the depth into front, middle and rear belts at decreasing rates; plots with frontage on two sides are treated as having two front belts. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Methods of Valuation · Source: Belting method of land valuation

82. Q82

    What is the fundamental principle of the belting method?

    1. Back land is more valuable
    2. Middle land is more valuable
    3. Middle and back lands are more valuable
    4. Front land is more valuable than back land

    Answer: (D) Front land is more valuable than back land

    Belting rests on the principle that land nearest the road frontage is the most valuable and value falls with depth, e.g. front:middle:rear belts at 100:66.67:50. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Methods of Valuation · Source: Belting method of land valuation

83. Q83

    Plots situated at the junction of two roads, having frontage on both these roads, are said to have

    1. Double frontages
    2. Return frontages
    3. Single frontage
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (B) Return frontages

    A corner plot with frontage on two intersecting roads has a 'return frontage', which usually adds value; 'double frontage' refers to frontage on two parallel roads at front and rear. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Methods of Valuation · Source: Valuation - frontage and corner influence

84. Q84

    The principle(s) of the Developer's Method of Valuation is/are:

    (i) In the absence of comparables of large extents of land, instances of small building plots can be adopted as the base.

    (ii) It is subject to deductions for land (for roads/amenities) and the cost of infrastructure.

    (iii) The land must possess the necessary potential for urban use, farm house, etc., for which there must be demand.

    1. (i) and (ii) only
    2. (iii) only
    3. All of the above
    4. (ii) and (iii) only

    Answer: (C) All of the above

    The developer's (hypothetical layout) method derives value of large undeveloped land from rates of small developed plots, after deducting land for roads/open spaces and development cost, and applies only where the land has development potential with demand. All three statements hold. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Methods of Valuation · Source: Developer's / residual method of valuation

85. Q85

    A bulk land of 2000 sq.m area is situated in Pune in the residential zone of the Development Plan. If the ASR rate of that land is Rs. 1,000 per sq.m, what would be the valuation of the property as per ASR?

    1. Rs. 20,00,000
    2. Rs. 19,00,000
    3. Rs. 18,50,000
    4. Rs. 18,00,000

    Answer: (C) Rs. 18,50,000

    Under the ASR guidelines for the rest of Maharashtra, bare land in developable zones of a DP is valued slab-wise: first 500 sq.m at 100% of the ASR rate, 500-2000 sq.m at 90%, 2001-4000 sq.m at 80%, and so on. Value = 500 x 1,000 + 1,500 x 1,000 x 0.90 = 5,00,000 + 13,50,000 = Rs. 18,50,000. Note: if the 90% factor were applied to the whole area the value would be Rs. 18,00,000, but the slab-wise reading is the guideline's method and matches an option exactly. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Annual Statement of Rates · Source: IGR Maharashtra ASR Guidelines (Rest of Maharashtra), Guideline 16(b) - valuation of bulk bare land

86. Q86

    The Annual Statement of Rates prepared by the Joint Director, Town Planning and Valuation, shall be submitted for approval to the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority latest by ______ of each year.

    1. 1st day of January
    2. 1st day of February
    3. last day of February
    4. 1st day of April

    Answer: (C) last day of February

    Official MPSC final key: (3). Under the Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules, the Joint Director of Town Planning and Valuation submits the draft Annual Statement of Rates to the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority for approval by the last day of February.

    Annual Statement of Rates · Source: Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules 1995 / ASR rules

87. Q87

    If a property is sold or allotted by Government or a local authority on the basis of a predetermined price, the true market value of the subject property is

    1. the value determined by the said bodies
    2. the value mentioned in the Annual Statement of Rates issued by the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority
    3. the true valuation of that property by recourse to local enquiry or extraneous evidence
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (A) the value determined by the said bodies

    The Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules provide that where property is sold or allotted by Government, a local authority or a Government undertaking at a predetermined price, that price is taken as its true market value. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Annual Statement of Rates · Source: Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules 1995

88. Q88

    For the purpose of average annual rates (ASR), properties may be divided into

    1. groups, sub-groups or classes
    2. tahsil-wise units
    3. local body-wise units
    4. None of the above

    Answer: (A) groups, sub-groups or classes

    The ASR rules allow properties to be divided into groups, sub-groups or classes (by location, zone, type of land and building) for fixing average annual rates. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Annual Statement of Rates · Source: Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules 1995

89. Q89

    GPS consists of: (i) water segment (ii) air segment (iii) space segment (iv) ground (control) segment (v) user segment. Choose the correct combination.

    1. (i), (iii) and (v)
    2. (ii), (iv) and (v)
    3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
    4. (iii), (iv) and (v)

    Answer: (D) (iii), (iv) and (v)

    GPS has three segments: space (satellite constellation), control/ground (monitoring stations) and user (receivers). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Current Events & Technology · Source: GPS fundamentals

90. Q90

    On 28th August 2022, the Supertech twin towers in Noida were demolished as per the order of the Supreme Court of India due to

    1. violation of building norms
    2. environmental clearance not obtained
    3. encroachment on Government land
    4. dispute of ownership of land

    Answer: (A) violation of building norms

    In Supertech Ltd v. Emerald Court Owner RWA (Aug 2021) the Supreme Court held the towers were built in violation of building bye-laws (minimum distance, fire norms, unauthorised revision of plans without residents' consent) in collusion with NOIDA officials. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: Supreme Court, Supertech Ltd v. Emerald Court RWA (2021)

91. Q91

    As per the directives given by the Government of Maharashtra in 2019, development plans should be prepared on a GIS platform for

    1. All Nagar Panchayats
    2. All Municipal Councils
    3. All Municipal Corporations
    4. All of the above

    Answer: (D) All of the above

    The 2019 Government of Maharashtra (UDD) directive made GIS-based preparation of Development Plans mandatory for all Planning Authorities: Municipal Corporations, Municipal Councils and Nagar Panchayats. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Current Events & Technology · Source: GoM UDD directive 2019 on GIS-based DPs

92. Q92

    The process of assigning real-world coordinates or a geographic coordinate system to each pixel of raster data is called

    1. Remote sensing
    2. Geo-referencing
    3. Digitization
    4. Data transformation

    Answer: (B) Geo-referencing

    Geo-referencing ties raster images or scanned maps to a map projection or coordinate system using ground control points; digitization converts raster features to vector. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Current Events & Technology · Source: GIS fundamentals

93. Q93

    As per PMAY-Urban guidelines, an affordable housing project can be a mix of houses for different categories, but it is eligible for Central assistance only if at least ____ of the houses in the project are for the EWS category.

    1. 25%
    2. 30%
    3. 35%
    4. 50%

    Answer: (C) 35%

    Under the Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP) vertical, a project should have at least 250 houses with at least 35% for EWS to get Central assistance of Rs. 1.5 lakh per EWS house. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: PMAY-U Guidelines 2015, para on AHP

94. Q94

    Options to beneficiaries under the scheme components of PMAY are:

    (i) Affordable Housing through Credit Linked Subsidy

    (ii) Affordable Housing through Industrial Development Subsidy

    (iii) Affordable Housing in Partnership

    (iv) Affordable Housing through Samruddhi Subsidy

    (v) Subsidy for Beneficiary-Led Individual House Construction or Enhancement

    1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
    2. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
    3. (i), (iii) and (v) only
    4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) only

    Answer: (C) (i), (iii) and (v) only

    PMAY-U has four verticals: In-situ Slum Redevelopment, Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme, Affordable Housing in Partnership and Beneficiary-Led Construction/Enhancement; 'industrial development subsidy' and 'samruddhi subsidy' are not components. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: PMAY-U Guidelines 2015

95. Q95

    The ______ must have an adequate workforce in terms of quality and quantity to tackle the challenges of urbanisation.

    1. Rural sector
    2. Public sector
    3. Urban sector
    4. Private sector

    Answer: (B) Public sector

    Reports on urban planning capacity (e.g. NITI Aayog 2021) stress that the public sector (ULBs and town planning departments) must have adequate qualified planners and staff to manage urbanisation. Low confidence: the source of this exact sentence was not found, so the intended answer is uncertain. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: NITI Aayog, Reforms in Urban Planning Capacity in India (2021)

96. Q96

    The following cities from Maharashtra are included in the Smart Cities Mission launched by the Government of India. Choose the incorrect option.

    1. Pune
    2. Kolhapur
    3. Thane
    4. Pimpri-Chinchwad

    Answer: (B) Kolhapur

    Maharashtra's Smart Cities include Pune, Pimpri-Chinchwad, Thane, Nagpur, Nashik, Solapur, Kalyan-Dombivli, Aurangabad (Chh. Sambhajinagar); Kolhapur was not selected. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: Smart Cities Mission (2015) city list

97. Q97

    The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) focuses on the following thrust areas. Choose the incorrect option.

    1. Water supply
    2. Sewerage facilities and septage management
    3. Storm-water drains
    4. Motorized transport

    Answer: (D) Motorized transport

    AMRUT thrust areas are water supply, sewerage and septage management, storm-water drainage, non-motorized urban transport and green spaces/parks; motorized transport is not a thrust area. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: AMRUT Mission Guidelines 2015

98. Q98

    The goal of ______ is to achieve improvement of livelihood, food and water security, and best possible realization of various developmental targets so as to ensure sustainable development of India.

    1. National Urban Transport Policy
    2. National Housing Policy
    3. National Land Utilisation Policy
    4. National Sustainable Development Policy

    Answer: (C) National Land Utilisation Policy

    The draft National Land Utilisation Policy (2013) states its goal as ensuring optimal land use to achieve improvement of livelihood, food and water security and developmental targets for sustainable development. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Policies in India & Maharashtra · Source: National Land Utilisation Policy (draft) 2013

99. Q99

    The correct descending order of priority of urban transport modes according to the National Urban Transport Policy, 2014 is:

    (i) Public Transport (road, rail and waterway)

    (ii) Personal motorized transport

    (iii) Walk and non-motorized transport (NMT)

    1. (i), (ii), (iii)
    2. (iii), (i), (ii)
    3. (ii), (iii), (i)
    4. (iii), (ii), (i)

    Answer: (B) (iii), (i), (ii)

    NUTP 2014 prioritises people over vehicles: walking and NMT first, then public transport, and personal motor vehicles last. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Transportation · Source: National Urban Transport Policy 2014

100. Q100

     As per the Maharashtra Housing Policy, 2021, for getting approvals, any online permission applied for will be decided by the planning authority within

     1. 45 days
     2. 30 days
     3. 60 days
     4. 90 days

     Answer: (B) 30 days

     MPSC deleted this question in its final answer key (26-12-2022), so it was not scored. Kept for reference only. The (draft) Maharashtra Housing Policy 2021 proposed single-window online approvals with applications to be decided by the planning authority within 30 days. Low confidence: the policy text could not be checked.

     Policies in India & Maharashtra · Source: Maharashtra Housing Policy 2021 (draft)