Free mock test · MPSC Assistant Town Planner

MPSC ATP Mock Test 1 with answers

एमपीएससी सहायक नगररचनाकार सराव प्रश्नपत्रिका — उत्तरे व स्पष्टीकरणांसह

Built on the official 19-unit syllabus

Questions	100
Time	60 minutes
Marking	+2 correct, −0.5 wrong

Every question below shows the correct answer and a short explanation. To take it as a timed test with negative marking and a topic-wise result, use MyMedha.

Topics in this test

UDCPR 12
Development Plan 10
Acts & Rules 10
Town Planning Scheme 8
Land Acquisition 7
Current Events & Technology 6
Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions 6
Transportation 5
Theories of Planning 4
Development Charges & Appeal 4
Environment 4
Methods of Valuation 4
RTI & RTS Acts 3
Regional Plan 3
Local Area Plan 3
Valuation 3
Valuation Tables 3
Annual Statement of Rates 3
Policies in India & Maharashtra 2

Questions, answers and explanations

Q1

Real-Time Kinematic (RTK) GNSS reaches centimetre-level accuracy in the field mainly because it:
1. Uses signals of geostationary weather satellites in place of GPS
2. Averages code pseudoranges of a single receiver over a few seconds
3. Applies magnetic compass bearings to correct satellite positions
4. Uses carrier-phase data with live corrections from a base station or CORS
Answer: (D) Uses carrier-phase data with live corrections from a base station or CORS

RTK resolves the carrier-phase ambiguity using corrections streamed from a reference station (or CORS network) a few km away, giving cm accuracy instantly; stand-alone code positioning gives only metre-level accuracy.

Current Events & Technology · Source: GNSS surveying - RTK principle
Q2

Comet 3I/ATLAS, which made its closest approach to Earth on 19 December 2025, is significant because it is:
1. the third confirmed interstellar object observed passing through the Solar System
2. the first comet discovered by an Indian telescope
3. a short-period comet returning after 76 years
4. a fragment of the Oort cloud captured into Earth orbit
Answer: (A) the third confirmed interstellar object observed passing through the Solar System

Discovered in July 2025 by the ATLAS telescope in Chile, 3I/ATLAS is the third known interstellar object after 'Oumuamua (2017) and 2I/Borisov (2019); it passed about 269 million km from Earth (PBS NewsHour).

Current Events & Technology · Source: https://www.pbs.org/newshour/science/interstellar-comet-3i-atlas-will-make-closest-approach-to-earth-on-friday
Q3

India's target of nuclear power capacity by 2047, cited in the context of the SHANTI Act (December 2025), is:
1. 100 GW
2. 22 GW
3. 50 GW
4. 500 GW
Answer: (A) 100 GW

India aims to reach 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047 using large reactors and small modular reactors; the SHANTI Act enables private participation towards this goal.

Current Events & Technology · Source: https://world-nuclear-news.org/articles/indias-shanti-bill-completes-legislative-process
Q4

Match the following:
(a) DWG (b) DXF (c) IFC (d) SHP
(i) Open, neutral data format for exchanging BIM models
(ii) Native drawing file of AutoCAD
(iii) Vector data format used in GIS (Esri shapefile)
(iv) Drawing Exchange Format for transferring CAD data between programs
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Answer: (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

DWG is AutoCAD's native format, DXF is Autodesk's Drawing Exchange Format for interoperability, IFC (Industry Foundation Classes, buildingSMART) is the open BIM exchange schema and SHP is the Esri shapefile used for GIS vector data.

Current Events & Technology · Source: CAD/BIM/GIS file formats (Autodesk; buildingSMART IFC; Esri)
Q5

Justice Surya Kant, sworn in on 24 November 2025, is which Chief Justice of India?
1. 53rd
2. 54th
3. 52nd
4. 51st
Answer: (A) 53rd

Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd CJI on 24 November 2025, succeeding Justice B.R. Gavai; he is the first CJI from Haryana, with tenure till February 2027.

Current Events & Technology · Source: https://www.businesstoday.in/india/story/justice-surya-kant-sworn-in-as-the-53rd-chief-justice-of-india-503369-2025-11-24
Q6

After South Africa's 2025 presidency, which country holds the G20 presidency in 2026?
1. Brazil
2. India
3. United Kingdom
4. United States
Answer: (D) United States

Following the Johannesburg summit (Nov 2025), the rotating G20 presidency passed to the United States for 2026 (CBS News).

Current Events & Technology · Source: https://www.cbsnews.com/news/g20-summit-south-africa-declaration-us-boycott
Q7

AMRUT 2.0, launched on 1 October 2021, aims at:
1. Metro connectivity in million-plus cities
2. Only rejuvenation of water bodies in 100 cities
3. Universal coverage of sewerage in all statutory towns
4. Universal coverage of water supply in all statutory towns and of sewerage/septage management in the 500 AMRUT cities
Answer: (D) Universal coverage of water supply in all statutory towns and of sewerage/septage management in the 500 AMRUT cities

AMRUT 2.0 (2021-26, outlay about Rs 2.77 lakh crore) targets functional tap connections in all ~4,800 statutory towns and 100% sewerage/septage coverage in the 500 AMRUT cities, along with Pey Jal Survekshan and City Water Balance Plans.

Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: AMRUT 2.0 Operational Guidelines, MoHUA 2021
Q8

Each Smart City under the Mission is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle which is:
1. A limited company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 with State/UT and ULB as equal promoters (50:50)
2. A trust under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
3. A society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860
4. A statutory authority under the MRTP Act
Answer: (A) A limited company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 with State/UT and ULB as equal promoters (50:50)

The SPV is a limited company under the Companies Act 2013 promoted by the State/UT and the ULB with 50:50 equity (private shareholding permitted provided State and ULB together retain majority), headed by a full-time CEO.

Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: Smart Cities Mission Guidelines 2015, para 10 (SPV)
Q9

The URDPFI Guidelines 2014 recommend a per-capita provision of organised open space (parks, playgrounds etc.) in urban areas of about:
1. 50 sq m per person
2. 10-12 sq m per person
3. 25-30 sq m per person
4. 2-3 sq m per person
Answer: (B) 10-12 sq m per person

URDPFI suggests 10-12 sq m per person of organised open space (hierarchy from housing-cluster tot-lots to city parks), while the water supply norm is 135 lpcd.

Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014, Vol. I, Chapter 8 (planning norms)
Q10

Under the RERA Act, 2016 as implemented by MahaRERA:
(i) 70% of amounts realised from allottees must be deposited in a separate bank account to cover construction and land cost
(ii) The promoter is liable for structural defects for five years from handing over possession
(iii) The remaining (operative) provisions of the Act, including mandatory registration of projects with the Authority, came into force on 1 May 2017
Which are correct?
1. (i) and (ii) only
2. (ii) and (iii) only
3. (i) and (iii) only
4. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Section 4(2)(l)(D) requires 70% of receipts in a separate account; s.14(3) gives a five-year defect liability; ss.3-19 and the remaining operative provisions were notified to commence on 1 May 2017 (MahaRERA itself was constituted by the State Government in March 2017).

Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: RERA Act 2016, ss.3, 4(2)(l)(D), 14(3), 20; MoHUA commencement notification (1 May 2017)
Q11

Which of the following was NOT a thrust area of AMRUT (2015)?
1. Non-motorised urban transport
2. Water supply
3. Storm water drainage
4. Solid waste management
Answer: (D) Solid waste management

AMRUT's thrust areas were water supply, sewerage and septage management, storm water drainage, green spaces and parks, and non-motorised urban transport; solid waste management is covered under SBM-U.

Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: AMRUT Mission Statement and Guidelines, MoUD 2015, para 3
Q12

As per Census 2011, the level of urbanisation in India (share of urban population) and in Maharashtra were approximately:
1. 25.7% and 38.0%
2. 27.8% and 42.4%
3. 31.2% and 45.2%
4. 35.0% and 50.1%
Answer: (C) 31.2% and 45.2%

Census 2011 recorded 377 million urban population, 31.16% of India's total (up from 27.8% in 2001); Maharashtra's urban share was 45.2%, among the highest of the large States.

Urbanisation, Schemes & Missions · Source: Census of India 2011, Provisional Population Totals (Urban)
Q13

The National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy, 2007 provides that in every new public/private housing project, the reservation for EWS/LIG housing shall be:
1. 10-15% of land or 20-25% of FAR/FSI, whichever is greater
2. 5-10% of land or 10-15% of FAR/FSI, whichever is less
3. 20-25% of land or 10-15% of FAR/FSI, whichever is greater
4. 15-20% of land or 25-30% of FAR/FSI, whichever is less
Answer: (A) 10-15% of land or 20-25% of FAR/FSI, whichever is greater

The policy's action plan reserves 10 to 15 percent of land or 20 to 25 percent of FAR/FSI, whichever is greater, for EWS/LIG housing, with State legislation and FAR relaxation to support it.

Policies in India & Maharashtra · Source: NUHHP 2007, Action Plan - Land / Spatial incentives
Q14

The stated overarching goal of the National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy, 2007 is:
1. Rental housing for all migrant industrial workers only
2. Ownership housing for all government employees only
3. Affordable housing for all, especially vulnerable sections
4. Slum-free cities through clearance of all informal settlements
Answer: (C) Affordable housing for all, especially vulnerable sections

NUHHP 2007 aims at 'Affordable Housing for All' with emphasis on SC/ST/BC, minorities, the urban poor and other vulnerable groups, through sustainable habitat development and a regional planning approach.

Policies in India & Maharashtra · Source: NUHHP 2007, Preamble and Aims
Q15

Regarding the Maharashtra State Commission for Right to Public Services constituted under section 13, which statement is INCORRECT?
1. The Chief Commissioner must be a retired Judge of the High Court
2. The Chief Commissioner and Commissioners are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Chief Minister
3. The selection committee includes the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister
4. The Commission consists of a State Chief Commissioner and State Commissioners, one for each revenue division
Answer: (A) The Chief Commissioner must be a retired Judge of the High Court

Section 13 provides for a State Chief Commissioner (with jurisdiction over Mumbai City and Suburban districts) and a State Commissioner for each revenue division, appointed on the recommendation of a committee of the Chief Minister, the Leader of Opposition and a nominated Cabinet Minister; s.13(5) only requires persons of eminence in public life with wide administrative experience, not a judicial qualification.

RTI & RTS Acts · Source: Maharashtra Right to Public Services Act 2015, s.13(2)-(5)
Q16

In any appeal proceedings under the RTI Act, the onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified lies on:
1. The appellant
2. The Information Commission
3. The third party
4. The Public Information Officer who denied the request
Answer: (D) The Public Information Officer who denied the request

Section 19(5) provides that in any appeal proceedings, the onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified shall be on the Central/State Public Information Officer who denied the request.

RTI & RTS Acts · Source: RTI Act 2005, s.19(5)
Q17

A PIO, without reasonable cause, furnished information 150 days after the expiry of the statutory period. The maximum penalty the Information Commission can impose on the PIO under section 20(1) of the RTI Act is:
1. Rs 25,000
2. Rs 37,500
3. Rs 50,000
4. Rs 15,000
Answer: (A) Rs 25,000

Section 20(1) prescribes a penalty of Rs 250 per day till information is furnished, subject to a ceiling of Rs 25,000. 150 x 250 = Rs 37,500, which exceeds the ceiling, so the maximum penalty is Rs 25,000.

RTI & RTS Acts · Source: RTI Act 2005, s.20(1)
Q18

In central place theory, the minimum population or purchasing power required to support the supply of a good or service from a central place is called its:
1. Hinterland
2. Hierarchy
3. Range
4. Threshold
Answer: (D) Threshold

Threshold is the minimum demand needed for a function to be viable, whereas range is the maximum distance consumers will travel to obtain the good. The range must exceed the threshold for a function to exist.

Theories of Planning · Source: Christaller, central place theory concepts
Q19

The concept of 'Ecumenopolis', a continuous world-wide city of the future, and the term 'Dynapolis' are associated with:
1. Le Corbusier
2. Kevin Lynch
3. C.A. Doxiadis
4. Lewis Mumford
Answer: (C) C.A. Doxiadis

Doxiadis, the Greek planner of Islamabad, coined Ekistics, proposed the dynamically growing city 'Dynapolis' and the ultimate global settlement 'Ecumenopolis'.

Theories of Planning · Source: Doxiadis, Ekistics
Q20

A typical residential sector in Le Corbusier's plan for Chandigarh measures about:
1. 1,600 m x 2,400 m
2. 400 m x 600 m
3. 1,000 m x 1,000 m
4. 800 m x 1,200 m
Answer: (D) 800 m x 1,200 m

Chandigarh's sectors are 800 m by 1,200 m self-contained neighbourhood units bounded by V3 roads, housing roughly 5,000 to 25,000 people with shopping on a V4 street. Gandhinagar's sectors are 1 km x 1 km.

Theories of Planning · Source: Le Corbusier, Chandigarh Master Plan (1951)
Q21

If a region's largest city has a population of 20 lakh and the rank-size rule holds exactly, the population of the fourth-ranked city will be:
1. 2.5 lakh
2. 10 lakh
3. 5 lakh
4. 4 lakh
Answer: (C) 5 lakh

Rank-size rule (Zipf): P(r) = P1 / r. For r = 4, P = 20 lakh / 4 = 5 lakh.

Theories of Planning · Source: Zipf's rank-size rule
Q22

Under the MRTP Act, 1966, a Region is established by the State Government by:
1. Notification by the Collector (s.18)
2. Order of the Director of Town Planning (s.13)
3. Resolution of the Regional Planning Board (s.4)
4. Notification in the Official Gazette defining its limits (s.3)
Answer: (D) Notification in the Official Gazette defining its limits (s.3)

Section 3(1) empowers the State Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, to establish any area in the State by defining its limits to be a Region for the purposes of the Act and to name it.

Regional Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.3(1)
Q23

A region's population grows geometrically at 25% per decade. If the population is 5,00,000 in 2011, the projected population in 2031 is approximately:
1. 7,50,000
2. 7,81,250
3. 8,25,000
4. 7,00,000
Answer: (B) 7,81,250

Geometric method: P = P0 (1 + r)^n = 5,00,000 x 1.25 x 1.25 = 5,00,000 x 1.5625 = 7,81,250.

Regional Plan · Source: Population projection: geometric increase method
Q24

After considering the report of the Regional Planning Committee, the Regional Board under section 16(4) of the MRTP Act submits the Regional plan with modifications to the:
1. Metropolitan Planning Committee
2. State Government, along with the Committee's report and connected documents
3. Director of Town Planning for sanction
4. Collector for publication
Answer: (B) State Government, along with the Committee's report and connected documents

Section 16(4) requires the Board to prepare the Regional plan with such modifications as it thinks fit and submit it to the State Government together with the report of the Regional Planning Committee and all connected documents, maps and plans.

Regional Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.16(4)
Q25

Under section 28(4) of the MRTP Act, after receiving the Planning Committee's report, the Planning Authority must make and carry out modifications to the draft DP and publish the list of modifications within two months, in the Official Gazette and in:
1. At least one national newspaper
2. Not less than two local newspapers
3. The Regional Board's bulletin only
4. Not less than three local newspapers
Answer: (B) Not less than two local newspapers

Section 28(4) requires the list of modifications to be published, within two months of the report, in the Official Gazette and in not less than two local newspapers for public information.

Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.28(4)
Q26

URDPFI Guidelines 2014 suggest one primary school per 5,000 population. For a projected population of 1,50,000, the number of primary schools to be provided in the DP is:
1. 30
2. 15
3. 300
4. 50
Answer: (A) 30

Number of schools = 1,50,000 / 5,000 = 30.

Development Plan · Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014, Vol I, Ch. 7 (social infrastructure norms: primary school 1 per 5,000)
Q27

Consider the following statements about the British structure-plan system introduced in 1968:
(i) Structure plans were prepared by county planning authorities and approved by the Secretary of State.
(ii) Local plans were required to be in general conformity with the structure plan.
(iii) Structure plans were prepared on an Ordnance Survey base map showing individual plot boundaries.
Which of the above are correct?
1. (i) and (ii) only
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (ii) and (iii) only
4. (i) and (iii) only
Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) only

Structure plans were strategic county-level documents approved centrally, and local plans had to conform with them. Showing plot boundaries was the job of local plans; structure plans used a key diagram.

Development Plan · Source: Town and Country Planning Act 1968 (UK); Local Government Act 1972
Q28

Under section 43 of the MRTP Act, development within the area of a Planning Authority needs its written permission after which event?
1. Publication of the declaration of intention to prepare a DP under section 23
2. Sanction of the final DP under section 31
3. Submission of the draft DP under section 30
4. Publication of the draft DP under section 26
Answer: (A) Publication of the declaration of intention to prepare a DP under section 23

Section 43 applies the requirement for permission from the date the declaration of intention to prepare a DP is published, so that development cannot get ahead of the plan while it is being prepared.

Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.43
Q29

Under section 43 of the MRTP Act, which of the following does NOT require permission of the Planning Authority?
1. Construction of a commercial complex on agricultural land
2. Change of use of a residential building to an office
3. Excavation, including wells, made in the ordinary course of agricultural operations
4. Subdivision of land into residential plots
Answer: (C) Excavation, including wells, made in the ordinary course of agricultural operations

The proviso to s.43 exempts excavations, including wells, made in the ordinary course of agricultural operations. The other activities are 'development' under s.2(7) and need permission.

Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.43 proviso
Q30

A Development Plan projects a population of 5,00,000 for the plan horizon year. If the planned gross density is 125 persons per hectare, the total developable area needed is:
1. 6,250 ha
2. 4,000 ha
3. 400 ha
4. 40,000 ha
Answer: (B) 4,000 ha

Area = population / density = 5,00,000 / 125 = 4,000 ha.

Development Plan · Source: Land requirement = projected population / gross density (URDPFI 2014)
Q31

Under section 24 of the MRTP Act, the Planning Authority appoints a Town Planning Officer to carry out the survey and prepare the DP proposals:
1. After publication of the draft DP, with the sanction of the Director of Town Planning
2. At the time of submitting the DP under section 30, with the sanction of the Collector
3. After sanction of the DP, without needing anyone's sanction
4. At the time of declaring its intention to prepare the DP, with the sanction of the State Government
Answer: (D) At the time of declaring its intention to prepare the DP, with the sanction of the State Government

Section 24 requires the Planning Authority, at the time of the declaration of intention, to resolve to appoint a qualified person as Town Planning Officer. The appointment needs the sanction of the State Government.

Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.24
Q32

Under the URDPFI Guidelines 2014, a city with a population of 70 lakh is classified as a:
1. Large City
2. Metropolitan City I
3. Metropolitan City II
4. Megapolis
Answer: (C) Metropolitan City II

Metropolitan City I covers 10-50 lakh, Metropolitan City II covers 50 lakh to 1 crore, and a Megapolis has more than 1 crore people. So 70 lakh is Metropolitan City II.

Development Plan · Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014, Vol. I, Ch. 2
Q33

Match the provision of the MRTP Act with its time limit:
(a) Preparing the ELU map after declaration (s.25) (b) Publishing the draft DP after the s.23 notice (s.26) (c) Submitting the draft DP after publication (s.30) (d) Revising the DP after it comes into operation (s.38)
(i) Two years (ii) Six months (iii) Twenty years (iv) Six months, with extension of up to one year in aggregate
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
2. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
3. a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
4. a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
Answer: (B) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Section 25: six months, extendable by up to one year in aggregate. Section 26: two years from the s.23 notice. Section 30: six months from the s.26 notice. Section 38: at least once in twenty years.

Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.25, 26, 30, 38
Q34

Under section 31(6) of the MRTP Act, a Development Plan that has come into operation is called the:
1. Final Development Plan
2. Regional Plan
3. Interim Development Plan
4. Draft Development Plan
Answer: (A) Final Development Plan

Section 31(6) names a DP that has come into operation the 'final Development plan' and makes it binding on the Planning Authority.

Development Plan · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.31(6)
Q35

Under section 68(1) of the MRTP Act (as amended), the Planning Authority must submit the draft scheme, with modifications and copies of objections, to the State Government within ____ from publication of the notice in the Official Gazette.
1. six months
2. one month
3. twelve months
4. three months
Answer: (D) three months

s.68(1) (as amended) requires submission of the draft scheme for sanction within three months from the date of publication of the notice in the Official Gazette.

Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.68(1)
Q36

Under section 88(b) of the MRTP Act, on the preliminary scheme coming into force, the rights in the original plots that have been reconstituted:
1. Vest in the State Government
2. Determine, and the reconstituted plots become subject to the rights settled by the Arbitrator
3. Continue unchanged until the final scheme is sanctioned
4. Are transferred to the Tribunal of Appeal for adjudication
Answer: (B) Determine, and the reconstituted plots become subject to the rights settled by the Arbitrator

s.88(b) ends all rights in reconstituted original plots and makes the reconstituted plots subject to the rights settled by the Arbitrator, so title passes from OP to FP.

Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.88(b)
Q37

Under section 85(2) of the MRTP Act, at the request of a person whose land was taken in advance, the Planning Authority may, after consulting the Arbitrator, pay an advance as provided in:
1. Section 51(2)
2. Section 129(3)
3. Section 97(1)
4. Section 126(1)
Answer: (B) Section 129(3)

Section 85(2) allows an advance payment, after consulting the Arbitrator, in the manner provided under s.129(3), the section on advance possession for public purposes.

Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.85(2)
Q38

For the proviso to section 72(7) of the MRTP Act, a 'substantial variation' in the draft scheme by the Arbitrator means an increase in the total cost of the draft scheme of more than:
1. 20 per cent or two lakh rupees, whichever is higher
2. 20 per cent or two lakh rupees, whichever is lower
3. 10 per cent or one lakh rupees, whichever is lower
4. 25 per cent or five lakh rupees, whichever is higher
Answer: (A) 20 per cent or two lakh rupees, whichever is higher

The Explanation to s.72(7) defines 'substantial variation' as an increase in the total cost of the draft scheme of more than 20% or Rs. 2 lakh, whichever is higher. Such variations need prior State sanction after hearing the Planning Authority and objecting owners.

Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.72(7), Explanation
Q39

For a TPS: works to be executed Rs. 3 crore; legal expenses Rs. 10 lakh; compensation for reservations solely beneficial to scheme residents Rs. 50 lakh; compensation for a reservation partly beneficial (50% attributable to scheme residents) Rs. 40 lakh; cost of infrastructure in the adjacent area Rs. 1 crore. Ignoring s.97(1)(f), the cost of scheme under section 97 is:
1. Rs. 4.2 crore
2. Rs. 4.0 crore
3. Rs. 3.8 crore
4. Rs. 4.5 crore
Answer: (B) Rs. 4.0 crore

Cost = 300 + 10 + 50 + (50% x 40 = 20) + (20% x 100 = 20) = 400 lakh = Rs. 4.0 crore (s.97(1)(b)-(e),(g)).

Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.97(1)
Q40

Under section 40(3)(jj)(a) of the GTPUDA, 1976, match the purpose with the share of the total scheme area that may be allotted:
A. Roads - 1. 5 per cent
B. Parks, playgrounds, gardens and open space - 2. 15 per cent
C. Sale by appropriate authority for residential, commercial or industrial use - 3. 5 per cent
D. Social infrastructure (school, dispensary, fire brigade, public utility) - 4. 15 per cent
1. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
2. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
3. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
4. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Answer: (B) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

s.40(3)(jj)(a) allots 15% for roads, 5% for open spaces, 5% for social infrastructure and 15% for sale, 40% in all, comparable to the 40% aggregate in MRTP s.64(g-1)(ii).

Town Planning Scheme · Source: GTPUDA 1976, s.40(3)(jj)
Q41

Under section 64(g-1)(i) of the MRTP Act, the draft scheme reserves ____ of the total scheme area for housing for economically weaker sections, lower income groups and persons dispossessed in the scheme.
1. 10 per cent
2. 5 per cent
3. 15 per cent
4. 20 per cent
Answer: (A) 10 per cent

s.64(g-1)(i) provides for reserving land to the extent of ten per cent of the total scheme area for EWS/LIG housing and for persons dispossessed in the scheme.

Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.64(g-1)(i)
Q42

Under section 72(3) of the MRTP Act, the Arbitrator must, as far as possible, prepare the final scheme within ____ from the date of his appointment.
1. twelve months
2. thirty-six months
3. twenty-four months
4. eighteen months
Answer: (D) eighteen months

s.72(3) sets nine months for the preliminary scheme and, as far as possible, eighteen months for the final scheme, both counted from the Arbitrator's appointment.

Town Planning Scheme · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.72(3)
Q43

A Local Area Plan (LAP) is best described as:
1. A detailed plan for a part of a city, such as a ward, precinct or corridor, that elaborates the Development Plan, typically for regeneration of built-up areas
2. A long-term perspective plan for the whole State
3. A plan for a group of districts prepared by a Regional Planning Board
4. A building-level plan submitted for development permission
Answer: (A) A detailed plan for a part of a city, such as a ward, precinct or corridor, that elaborates the Development Plan, typically for regeneration of built-up areas

An LAP works below the city-level DP and details land use, circulation, infrastructure and urban form for a smaller area, mainly to regenerate already developed areas (URDPFI 2014; GTPUDA s.76A).

Local Area Plan · Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014 (plan hierarchy); GTPUDA 1976, s.76A
Q44

Section 23(1)(ix-a) of the GTPUDA, 1976 empowers the urban development authority to:
1. Levy and collect fees or charges for execution of works and provision of amenities specified in the Local Area Plan
2. Acquire land under the RFCTLARR Act for the Local Area Plan
3. Appoint a Town Planning Officer for the Local Area Plan
4. Suspend the Development Plan in the Local Area Plan area
Answer: (A) Levy and collect fees or charges for execution of works and provision of amenities specified in the Local Area Plan

s.23(1)(ix-a) lets the authority levy and collect fees or charges for works, services and amenities specified in the LAP, so LAP infrastructure can be recovered from beneficiaries.

Local Area Plan · Source: GTPUDA 1976, s.23(1)(ix-a)
Q45

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a Local Area Plan?
1. Detailed street network and road widening proposals
2. Plot-level development controls and urban design guidelines
3. Upgrading of local physical and social infrastructure
4. Regional settlement hierarchy and inter-district transport corridors
Answer: (D) Regional settlement hierarchy and inter-district transport corridors

LAPs work at neighbourhood or precinct scale (streets, plot-level controls, urban design, local infrastructure). Settlement hierarchy and inter-district corridors belong to a Regional Plan (MRTP s.14).

Local Area Plan · Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014; MRTP Act 1966, s.14
Q46

The extent of Foreign Direct Investment permitted in Integrated Township Projects in India (Press Note 4 of 2001 series) is:
1. 74%
2. 49%
3. 100%
4. 26%
Answer: (C) 100%

Press Note No. 4 (2001 series) of DIPP allowed 100% FDI in development of integrated townships, which the Maharashtra ITP regulation cites as one of the enabling incentives.

UDCPR · Source: DIPP Press Note 4 (2001); UDCPR 2020, Regulation 14.1
Q47

Which of the following is counted in the P-line area for FSI under the UDCPR?
1. Lift well and lift machine room
2. A double-height terrace
3. An atrium
4. Refuge area of a high-rise building
Answer: (B) A double-height terrace

Reg 6.6 expressly includes double-height terraces in the P-line. Lift wells, lift machine rooms (6.8(iii)), refuge areas (6.8(v)) and atriums (6.8(vii)) are excluded from FSI.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Regs 6.6 and 6.8
Q48

In a Regional plan area, an Integrated Township Project under UDCPR 2020 may be permitted on land falling in the:
1. Agricultural / No-Development Zone, subject to exclusion of sensitive areas such as forests, hill slopes and CRZ
2. Coastal Regulation Zone only
3. Reserved forest only
4. Defence land only
Answer: (A) Agricultural / No-Development Zone, subject to exclusion of sensitive areas such as forests, hill slopes and CRZ

The purpose of the ITP regulation is to allow large planned townships even in agricultural/no-development zones of Regional plans, while excluding environmentally sensitive lands (forest, hill-top/hill-slope, CRZ, eco-sensitive zones, defence lands).

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Regulation 14.1 (applicability)
Q49

Under UDCPR 2020, the quantum of TDR that can be loaded on a receiving plot is primarily limited by:
1. the number of floors in the existing building
2. the area of the generating plot
3. the population of the ward
4. the TDR column of Table 6-G/6-A, which depends on the width of the road the plot fronts
Answer: (D) the TDR column of Table 6-G/6-A, which depends on the width of the road the plot fronts

TDR loading is capped by the road-width-based limits in Table 6-G (0.40 to 1.40 in MC non-congested areas) and Table 6-A, along with other conditions in Reg 6.3 and Chapter 11.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 6.3, Table 6-G; Chapter 11
Q50

Under UDCPR 2020, development charges under the MRTP Act are to be deposited:
1. after completion of plinth, at the Collector's rates
2. before issue of development permission/commencement certificate, calculated using the rates in the Annual Statement of Rates (ASR)
3. at the time of occupancy certificate, at a flat rate
4. only for buildings above 24 m height
Answer: (B) before issue of development permission/commencement certificate, calculated using the rates in the Annual Statement of Rates (ASR)

Reg 2.2.13 requires development charges to be deposited before issue of DP/CC, calculated for each land parcel considering ASR rates; compound walls, maintenance and certain repairs are exempt.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 2.2.13; MRTP Act s.124A-124B
Q51

For Municipal Councils and Regional Plan areas, relaxations under Reg 2.4 of UDCPR 2020 are to be granted in consultation with the:
1. Director of Municipal Administration
2. Chief Fire Officer
3. Collector
4. concerned Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning
Answer: (D) concerned Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning

Reg 2.4 provides that in Municipal Councils and RP areas such relaxation shall be granted in consultation with the concerned Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 2.4
Q52

A composite building has proposed FSI of 3,000 sq m for residential use and 1,000 sq m for commercial use. Taking ancillary area FSI on a pro-rata basis by use, the maximum ancillary area FSI is:
1. 2,400 sq m
2. 2,600 sq m
3. 3,200 sq m
4. 2,000 sq m
Answer: (B) 2,600 sq m

For mixed uses, ancillary FSI is pro-rata: residential 60% x 3,000 = 1,800 sq m; commercial 80% x 1,000 = 800 sq m. Total = 2,600 sq m.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Notes 1 and 4 below Table 6-A; Note (i) below Table 6-G
Q53

Under the proviso to UDCPR Reg 7.10(i), which buildings must mandatorily achieve at least GRIHA Three star / IGBC Silver / LEED Silver (or equivalent)?
1. All buildings on plots above 4,000 sq m, whether public or private
2. Buildings of Government, Semi-Government, local bodies and public sector undertakings
3. All IT/ITES buildings and data centres in Municipal Corporation areas
4. All residential and commercial buildings above 24 m height in any authority
Answer: (B) Buildings of Government, Semi-Government, local bodies and public sector undertakings

The proviso makes a minimum three-star/silver-equivalent rating compulsory for all Government, Semi-Government, local body and PSU construction projects. For private projects the rating is voluntary and rewarded with incentive FSI.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Reg 7.10(i) proviso
Q54

An owner surrenders 800 sq.m. of land affected by a DP road (non-congested area) free of cost to the Planning Authority. The TDR admissible under UDCPR 2020 is:
1. 800 sq.m.
2. 2,400 sq.m.
3. 1,200 sq.m.
4. 1,600 sq.m.
Answer: (D) 1,600 sq.m.

Reg 11.2.4: TDR equal to 2 times the area of land surrendered (non-congested area). 2 x 800 = 1,600 sq.m.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 11.2.4
Q55

Under UDCPR 2020, 'row housing' means a row of houses with:
1. only front open space
2. only front and rear open spaces, except end houses which have side open spaces
3. common walls on all sides and a central courtyard
4. open spaces on all four sides
Answer: (B) only front and rear open spaces, except end houses which have side open spaces

Reg 1.3 defines row housing as a row of houses with only front and rear open spaces, except end houses which shall have side open spaces.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 1.3 (definition: Row housing)
Q56

A residential building is proposed with 4,000 sq.m. of FSI (basic + premium + TDR) in a Municipal Corporation. The maximum ancillary area FSI that can be added under UDCPR 2020, and the resulting total built-up area, are:
1. 1,600 sq.m.; 5,600 sq.m.
2. 2,000 sq.m.; 6,000 sq.m.
3. 2,400 sq.m.; 6,400 sq.m.
4. 3,200 sq.m.; 7,200 sq.m.
Answer: (C) 2,400 sq.m.; 6,400 sq.m.

Ancillary area FSI for residential = 60% of proposed FSI = 0.60 x 4,000 = 2,400 sq.m.; total = 4,000 + 2,400 = 6,400 sq.m.

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 6.1 & 6.3
Q57

In UDCPR 2020, a 'tenement' is defined as:
1. a dwelling unit having carpet area not exceeding 30 sq.m.
2. an independent dwelling unit with a kitchen or cooking alcove
3. any room let out on rent in a building
4. a unit in a group housing scheme having a separate entrance staircase
Answer: (B) an independent dwelling unit with a kitchen or cooking alcove

Reg 1.3 defines tenement as 'an independent dwelling unit with a kitchen or cooking alcove'; size limits arise only under specific schemes (e.g. inclusive housing).

UDCPR · Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 1.3 (definition: Tenement)
Q58

Under section 47 of the MRTP Act, an appeal against a refusal or conditional grant of permission lies to the State Government or to an officer appointed by it not below the rank of:
1. Joint Director of Town Planning
2. Under Secretary to Government
3. Deputy Secretary to Government
4. Divisional Commissioner
Answer: (C) Deputy Secretary to Government

Section 47 allows an appeal within forty days of communication of the order, to the State Government or an officer not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to Government.

Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.47
Q59

A residential building with a built-up area of 3,000 sq m is proposed. The ASR rate of developed land is Rs.20,000 per sq m. Taking a building development charge rate of 2% of the ASR rate, the development charge is:
1. Rs.1,20,000
2. Rs.12,00,000
3. Rs.3,00,000
4. Rs.6,00,000
Answer: (B) Rs.12,00,000

Development charge = built-up area x ASR rate x 2% = 3,000 x 20,000 x 0.02 = Rs.12,00,000.

Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.124B with Second Schedule (rate assumed in question)
Q60

With reference to development charge regulations under the MRTP Act, consider:
(i) Before changing the rates, the Authority must pass a resolution at a special meeting and obtain the State Government's sanction to the regulations.
(ii) The charge comes into force on or after the date specified by the State Government in its sanction (s.124C).
(iii) Every later enhancement or reduction of rates must be separately notified to each affected owner or occupier (s.124D).
Which is/are correct?
1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (i) and (iii) only
3. (i) and (ii) only
4. (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

s.124B needs a special-meeting resolution and State sanction, and s.124C brings the charge into force from the date the State specifies. s.124D(1) needs display on the office notice board and a notice in a local newspaper, but s.124D(2) says no separate notice to owners or occupiers is needed when rates are enhanced or reduced.

Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.124B, 124C, 124D
Q61

Consider the following about sections 124K and 124L of the MRTP Act:
(i) A person who continues development after a stop notice for non-payment of development charge may be imprisoned for not less than three months, up to three years.
(ii) If the person fails to demolish as required, the Authority may demolish and recover the expense as arrears of land revenue.
(iii) The development charge Chapter has effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent in the MRTP Act or any other law.
Which are correct?
1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (ii) and (iii) only
3. (iii) only
4. (i) and (ii) only
Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

s.124K(3) prescribes imprisonment of 3 months to 3 years, a fine of Rs.1,000 to 5,000 and up to Rs.100 per day for continuing default. s.124K(4) allows demolition at the defaulter's cost. s.124L(1) gives the Chapter overriding effect.

Development Charges & Appeal · Source: MRTP Act 1966, ss.124K, 124L
Q62

A binary logit mode-choice model gives utilities of U(car) = -1.0 and U(bus) = -1.5 for a trip. The probability of choosing bus is about:
1. 0.38
2. 0.50
3. 0.62
4. 0.33
Answer: (A) 0.38

P(bus) = e^-1.5 / (e^-1.0 + e^-1.5) = 0.2231/(0.3679 + 0.2231) = 0.2231/0.5910 = 0.38 (and P(car) = 0.62).

Transportation · Source: Multinomial/binary logit model of mode choice
Q63

The National Transit Oriented Development (TOD) Policy, 2017 defines the 'influence zone' around a transit station as the area within a walking distance of about:
1. 100-200 m
2. 2-3 km
3. 5 km
4. 500-800 m (5-10 minute walk)
Answer: (D) 500-800 m (5-10 minute walk)

The National TOD Policy (MoHUA, 2017) defines the TOD influence zone as the area within 500-800 m, i.e. a 5-10 minute walk, where high density mixed-use development is encouraged.

Transportation · Source: National Transit Oriented Development Policy 2017, MoHUA
Q64

IRC:65-1976 recommends that a traffic rotary (roundabout) is suitable when the total traffic entering from all legs is in the range of:
1. 50 to 300 vehicles per hour
2. Above 10,000 vehicles per hour
3. 500 to 3,000 vehicles per hour
4. 3,000 to 10,000 vehicles per hour
Answer: (C) 500 to 3,000 vehicles per hour

IRC:65 considers a rotary suitable when total entering traffic is about 500-3,000 veh/h; below that a simple intersection suffices and above it signals or grade separation are required.

Transportation · Source: IRC:65-1976, Recommended practice for traffic rotaries
Q65

Camber on a road is provided for drainage of surface water; as per IRC the recommended camber for a cement concrete surface in an area of heavy rainfall is:
1. 4.0% (1 in 25)
2. 1.0% (1 in 100)
3. 2.0% (1 in 50)
4. 3.0% (1 in 33)
Answer: (C) 2.0% (1 in 50)

IRC recommends camber of 2.0% (heavy rain) / 1.7% (light rain) for CC and high-type bituminous surfaces, 2.5-3.0% for WBM/gravel and 3-4% for earth roads; smoother surfaces need less camber.

Transportation · Source: IRC:73-1980 – Recommended values of camber
Q66

In mode-choice analysis, 'captive riders' of public transport are those who:
1. Make all their trips by walking and never use any vehicle at all
2. Own two or more cars but use the metro on weekends for leisure
3. Have no access to a personal vehicle and must use public transport
4. Choose public transport only when it is faster than driving a car
Answer: (C) Have no access to a personal vehicle and must use public transport

Captive users depend on public transport because they lack access to a personal vehicle; 'choice riders' can use either and switch based on time, cost and comfort.

Transportation · Source: Mode choice theory - captive vs choice riders
Q67

Which of the following measures help in mitigating the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect?
(i) Cool/reflective roofs with high albedo
(ii) Increasing the proportion of dark asphalt surfaces
(iii) Urban greening and green roofs
(iv) Preserving urban water bodies
1. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2. (i) and (ii) only
3. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
4. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Answer: (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

UHI arises from low-albedo dark surfaces, reduced vegetation/evapotranspiration, urban canyon geometry and anthropogenic heat; high-albedo surfaces, vegetation and water bodies reduce it, whereas dark asphalt increases heat absorption.

Environment · Source: Oke, T.R. – Urban climatology; Ahmedabad Heat Action Plan 2013
Q68

The doctrine of 'absolute liability' for enterprises engaged in hazardous activities was laid down by the Supreme Court in:
1. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum gas leak case, 1987)
2. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India (1996)
3. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu (1999)
4. T.N. Godavarman v. Union of India (1996)
Answer: (A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum gas leak case, 1987)

In the Shriram Food & Fertilisers oleum leak case the Court evolved absolute liability (no exceptions, unlike strict liability in Rylands v. Fletcher). Bichhri (ICELA 1996) applied polluter pays; Godavarman is the forest case; Nayudu applied the precautionary principle.

Environment · Source: M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
Q69

As per Schedule item 8(a) of the EIA Notification 2006, a 'Building and Construction project' requires prior environmental clearance (Category B) when its built-up area is:
1. 20,000 sq m or more and less than 1,50,000 sq m
2. 5,000 sq m or more
3. 10,000 sq m or more
4. Only above 1,50,000 sq m
Answer: (A) 20,000 sq m or more and less than 1,50,000 sq m

Item 8(a) covers building/construction projects with built-up area ≥20,000 sq m and <1,50,000 sq m; item 8(b) covers townships/area development of ≥50 ha or built-up ≥1,50,000 sq m. Both are Category B appraised by SEIAA.

Environment · Source: EIA Notification 2006, Schedule, items 8(a) and 8(b)
Q70

Under the CRZ Notification, 2019, the inter-tidal zone between the Low Tide Line and the High Tide Line is classified as:
1. CRZ-II
2. CRZ-IV B
3. CRZ-I A
4. CRZ-I B
Answer: (D) CRZ-I B

CRZ-I A covers ecologically sensitive areas (mangroves, corals, sand dunes, etc.); CRZ-I B is the inter-tidal zone between LTL and HTL; CRZ-IV B is tidal-influenced water bodies.

Environment · Source: CRZ Notification 2019, para 2 – classification of CRZ
Q71

Section 156 of the MRTP Act says that development permitted under another law is not lawful unless permitted under the MRTP Act. Which of the following is excepted and NOT treated as unauthorised development?
1. A layout approved by a private bank for mortgage
2. A building approved only by a co-operative housing society
3. A structure assessed to property tax by the municipality
4. Gunthewari development regularised under the Maharashtra Gunthewari Developments (Regularisation, Upgradation and Control) Act, 2001
Answer: (D) Gunthewari development regularised under the Maharashtra Gunthewari Developments (Regularisation, Upgradation and Control) Act, 2001

s.156 excepts development permitted or deemed permitted by a Village Panchayat within gaothan, and gunthewari development regularised under the 2001 Gunthewari Act.

Acts & Rules · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.156
Q72

The register of mutations and register of disputed cases are provided for in which section of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966?
1. Section 154
2. Section 149
3. Section 155
4. Section 150
Answer: (D) Section 150

s.150 provides for the register of mutations and register of disputed cases. s.149 requires acquisition of rights to be reported, s.155 corrects clerical errors, and s.154 requires registering officers to send intimation of transfers.

Acts & Rules · Source: MLRC 1966, s.150
Q73

Under Article 243B, Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding:
1. 10 lakhs
2. 25 lakhs
3. 50 lakhs
4. 20 lakhs
Answer: (D) 20 lakhs

Article 243B(1) provides for Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels, while Art. 243B(2) permits States with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs to dispense with the intermediate level.

Acts & Rules · Source: Constitution of India, Art. 243B(2)
Q74

Match the powers of the State Government under the Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949:
(a) s.448 (b) s.451 (c) s.452 (d) s.452A
(i) Dissolve the Corporation
(ii) Require performance of duties in default of a municipal authority
(iii) Appoint Government officer(s) to perform functions of the Corporation
(iv) Suspend or rescind any resolution or order of the Corporation
1. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
2. a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
3. a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
4. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Answer: (A) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

s.448 is the power to require performance of duties on default, s.451 to suspend or rescind resolutions, s.452 to dissolve the Corporation, and s.452A to appoint officers to run it.

Acts & Rules · Source: MMC Act 1949, ss.448, 451, 452, 452A
Q75

The Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949 was originally enacted as the Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporations Act, 1949. Which Corporation in Maharashtra is NOT governed by it?
1. Nashik Municipal Corporation
2. Pune Municipal Corporation
3. Nagpur Municipal Corporation
4. Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation
Answer: (D) Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation

Every Municipal Corporation in Maharashtra except Brihanmumbai is governed by the MMC Act, 1949 (formerly the BPMC Act). Brihanmumbai is governed by the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act, 1888.

Acts & Rules · Source: MMC Act 1949 (Bombay Act LIX of 1949); Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act 1888
Q76

Appointment of the Municipal Commissioner is provided in which section of the Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949?
1. Section 19
2. Section 36
3. Section 45
4. Section 39A
Answer: (B) Section 36

s.36 deals with appointment of the Commissioner, s.39A with Additional Municipal Commissioners, s.45 with the City Engineer etc., and s.19 with the Mayor and Deputy Mayor.

Acts & Rules · Source: MMC Act 1949, s.36
Q77

Match the sections of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966:
(a) s.50 (b) s.51 (c) s.52 (d) s.242
(i) Regularisation of encroachments
(ii) Collector's procedure to evict a person wrongfully in possession
(iii) Removal of encroachment on land vesting in Government
(iv) Value and land revenue how calculated
1. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
2. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
3. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
4. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
Answer: (A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

s.50 removes encroachments on Government land, s.51 regularises encroachments, s.52 explains how value and land revenue are calculated, and s.242 sets out the Collector's procedure for evicting a person in wrongful possession.

Acts & Rules · Source: MLRC 1966, ss.50-52, 242
Q78

Regarding a notice under section 53(1) of the MRTP Act, consider:
(i) For development carried out without permission, or after the permission was revoked, the notice may require restoration within 24 hours.
(ii) For development contrary to permission or to modified permission, at least one month's notice is given.
(iii) While an application under section 44 to retain the development is pending, the notice is in abeyance.
Which are correct?
1. (i) and (iii) only
2. (ii) and (iii) only
3. (i) and (ii) only
4. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

s.53(1) gives 24 hours for cases under s.52(1)(a) or (c) (no permission, or revoked permission) and one month for (b) or (d). Under s.53(3), an application for retention under s.44 keeps the notice in abeyance until decided.

Acts & Rules · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.53(1),(3)
Q79

Under section 52A of the MRTP Act, unauthorised developments can be declared 'compounded structures' only if they were completed on or before:
1. 31st December 2015
2. 31st March 2012
3. 1st January 2001
4. 10th August 1992
Answer: (A) 31st December 2015

s.52A covers unauthorised developments in Development Plan areas completed on or before 31 December 2015. Once declared compounded, only repairs and maintenance are allowed and reconstruction must follow the current DCR.

Acts & Rules · Source: MRTP Act 1966, s.52A
Q80

What was the key advance of the Bombay Town Planning Act, 1954 over the 1915 Act?
1. It first introduced Town Planning Schemes
2. It created Regional Planning Boards
3. It introduced the levy of development charge as a percentage of ASR
4. It made preparation of a Development Plan for the whole area of a local authority obligatory
Answer: (D) It made preparation of a Development Plan for the whole area of a local authority obligatory

The 1915 Act provided only for Town Planning Schemes. The 1954 Act required every local authority to prepare a Development Plan for its whole area, with TPSs as the means of implementing it. Regional Boards came with the MRTP Act 1966, and development charge in 1992.

Acts & Rules · Source: History: Bombay TP Act 1954 vs 1915
Q81

Under section 30(1) of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, solatium is payable at what rate of the compensation amount determined under section 27?
1. 75%
2. 30%
3. 100%
4. 50%
Answer: (C) 100%

Section 30(1) provides solatium equal to 100% of the compensation amount (market value multiplied by the factor plus value of assets), in consideration of the compulsory nature of acquisition.

Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.30(1) and First Schedule
Q82

Under section 21 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, the public notice calling persons interested to state their claims must fix a date of appearance which is:
1. Not less than 15 days and not more than 3 months after publication of the notice
2. Exactly 30 days after publication of the notice
3. Not less than 30 days and not more than 6 months after publication of the notice
4. Not less than 60 days and not more than 12 months after publication of the notice
Answer: (C) Not less than 30 days and not more than 6 months after publication of the notice

Section 21(2) requires the date fixed in the notice to be not less than thirty days and not more than six months after the date of publication of the notice.

Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.21(2)
Q83

'Acquisition and requisitioning of property' appears as Entry 42 in which List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution?
1. Union List (List I)
2. State List (List II)
3. Residuary powers
4. Concurrent List (List III)
Answer: (D) Concurrent List (List III)

Entry 42 of the Concurrent List (List III) covers acquisition and requisitioning of property, which is why both Parliament (RFCTLARR Act 2013) and State legislatures (Maharashtra amendments of 2018) can legislate on it.

Land Acquisition · Source: Constitution of India, Seventh Schedule, List III Entry 42
Q84

Under the Second Schedule of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, an affected family opting for the annuity policy (ignoring indexation) receives in total over the policy period:
1. Rs 3.6 lakh
2. Rs 5.0 lakh
3. Rs 2.4 lakh
4. Rs 4.8 lakh
Answer: (D) Rs 4.8 lakh

Annuity = Rs 2,000 per month x 12 x 20 years = Rs 4,80,000 (indexed to CPI-AL); the alternative one-time payment is Rs 5 lakh.

Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, Second Schedule, item 4
Q85

Under section 2(2) of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, prior consent of affected families is required to the extent of ____ for private projects and ____ for public-private partnership projects.
1. 80%; 70%
2. 90%; 80%
3. 70%; 60%
4. 75%; 50%
Answer: (A) 80%; 70%

The first proviso to s.2(2) requires consent of at least 80% of affected families for acquisition for private companies and 70% for PPP projects where ownership of land continues to vest in Government.

Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.2(2) proviso
Q86

Under section 30(3) of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, the Collector awards an additional amount at 12% per annum on the market value for the period commencing from:
1. Date of publication of the SIA notification under s.4(2) till the award or possession, whichever is earlier
2. Date of s.11 notification till the date of payment
3. Date of s.19 declaration till the award
4. Date of award till the date of possession
Answer: (A) Date of publication of the SIA notification under s.4(2) till the award or possession, whichever is earlier

Section 30(3) differs from s.23(1A) of the 1894 Act: the 12% runs from the date of publication of the notification of the SIA study under s.4(2) until the award or taking possession, whichever is earlier.

Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.30(3)
Q87

Under section 64 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, a person who was present when the award was made and does not accept it may apply to the Collector for a reference to the Authority within:
1. Six weeks from the date of the award
2. One year from the date of the award
3. Three months from the date of the award
4. Six months from the date of the award
Answer: (A) Six weeks from the date of the award

Section 64(2)(a): six weeks from the date of the award for those present; in other cases, six weeks from receipt of notice under s.21 or six months from the award, whichever expires first (s.64(2)(b)).

Land Acquisition · Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.64(2)
Q88

Which of the following is NOT an example of an easement?
1. Right of way over a neighbour's plot
2. Right to occupy premises as a tenant for a term of years
3. Right of support from an adjoining building
4. Right to receive light and air through a window
Answer: (B) Right to occupy premises as a tenant for a term of years

Rights of way, light and air, support and water flow are typical easements; the right to occupy for a term of years is a lease (an interest in possession), not an easement.

Valuation · Source: Indian Easements Act 1882, s.4 illustrations
Q89

Match the kind of value (Column A) with its description (Column B):
(a) Scrap value (b) Salvage value (c) Book value (d) Distress value
(i) Value of a property at the end of its utility period without being dismantled
(ii) Amount shown in the owner's accounts after deducting depreciation from original cost
(iii) Value of dismantled materials of a building at the end of its life
(iv) Value realised when the owner is forced to sell under pressure
1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Answer: (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Scrap value is the value of dismantled materials; salvage value is the value at the end of the utility period without breaking up; book value is original cost less depreciation as per books; distress value arises from a forced sale.

Valuation · Source: Valuation textbook: types of value
Q90

'Ground rent' is the rent paid
1. by a lessee to the freeholder for the land alone, the lessee usually erecting the building
2. by a sub-tenant to the head lessee for the building
3. for a furnished flat
4. as municipal tax on open land
Answer: (A) by a lessee to the freeholder for the land alone, the lessee usually erecting the building

Ground rent is the rent reserved under a building lease for the bare land; the lessee constructs the building at his own cost and holds it for the lease term.

Valuation · Source: Valuation textbook: ground rent
Q91

Match the type of mortgage (Column A) with its feature (Column B) under section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
(a) Simple mortgage (b) Usufructuary mortgage (c) English mortgage (d) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
(i) Mortgagee is put in possession and receives rents/profits in lieu of interest
(ii) Property is transferred absolutely to the mortgagee subject to re-transfer on repayment
(iii) Mortgagor binds himself personally and gives the mortgagee a right to have the property sold, without delivering possession
(iv) Title deeds are delivered to a creditor as security (equitable mortgage)
1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Answer: (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Section 58(b) simple mortgage: personal covenant plus power of sale without possession; 58(d) usufructuary: possession and rents to mortgagee; 58(e) English: absolute transfer with proviso for re-transfer; 58(f): deposit of title deeds (equitable mortgage).

Valuation Tables · Source: Transfer of Property Act 1882, s.58(b),(d),(e),(f)
Q92

Which of the following interests is most appropriately valued using a dual-rate years' purchase?
1. A leasehold interest with 20 years unexpired
2. A perpetual annuity from government securities
3. Agricultural land held freehold
4. A freehold interest let in perpetuity at a secured ground rent
Answer: (A) A leasehold interest with 20 years unexpired

Dual-rate YP is used for terminable (wasting) interests such as leaseholds, where the investor must recover his capital through a sinking fund by the end of the term; perpetual freehold incomes need no sinking fund and use the single-rate perpetuity YP.

Valuation Tables · Source: Valuation textbook: application of dual-rate tables
Q93

The amount of Re.1 per annum (invested at the end of each year) at 5 per cent for 2 years is
1. 2.000
2. 2.103
3. 2.050
4. 1.907
Answer: (C) 2.050

Amount of Re.1 p.a. = ((1+i)^n - 1)/i = (1.1025 - 1)/0.05 = 2.05. Check: Re.1 at end of year 1 grows to 1.05, plus Re.1 at end of year 2 = 2.05.

Valuation Tables · Source: Formula: Amount of Re.1 p.a. = ((1+i)^n - 1)/i
Q94

A property let at a rent below the prevailing market rent for the next 5 years, after which it will be re-let at market rent, is best valued by
1. capitalising the market rent in perpetuity without deferment
2. the contractor's method
3. capitalising the current rent in perpetuity
4. capitalising the current rent for 5 years at YP for 5 years and adding the market rent capitalised in perpetuity deferred 5 years
Answer: (D) capitalising the current rent for 5 years at YP for 5 years and adding the market rent capitalised in perpetuity deferred 5 years

This is a term-and-reversion valuation: the present (lower) rent for the term is capitalised with YP for 5 years, and the reversion to full market rent is capitalised in perpetuity and deferred by 5 years using PV of Re.1.

Methods of Valuation · Source: Investment method: term and reversion
Q95

In the belting method of land valuation, the plot is divided into belts parallel to the
1. side boundary
2. longer diagonal
3. rear boundary
4. road frontage
Answer: (D) road frontage

Belting recognises that land nearer the road frontage is more valuable; belts of increasing depth are drawn parallel to the frontage and each successive belt is valued at a reducing proportion of the front belt rate.

Methods of Valuation · Source: Belting method of valuation
Q96

Match the depreciation method (Column I) with its formula or characteristic (Column II):
Column I: (A) Straight line (B) Constant percentage (C) Sinking fund (D) Quantity survey
Column II: (1) D = C(1-p)^n gives book value (2) Each component of building assessed separately (3) (C-S)/n per year (4) Annual instalment accumulates with compound interest
1. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
2. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
3. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Answer: (D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Straight line: equal annual depreciation (C-S)/n; constant percentage: fixed % of the diminishing balance; sinking fund: instalment accumulating at compound interest; quantity survey: detailed item-wise assessment of deterioration.

Methods of Valuation · Source: Depreciation methods: formulae
Q97

The method of valuation in which the value of a property is estimated by analysing recent sale instances of similar properties in the locality and adjusting for differences is known as the
1. residual method
2. contractor's method
3. comparative (sales comparison) method
4. profits method
Answer: (C) comparative (sales comparison) method

The comparative or market approach relies on evidence of actual transactions of comparable properties; differences in time, location, size, shape and tenure are adjusted to arrive at the value of the subject property.

Methods of Valuation · Source: Valuation theory: comparative method (Rangwala, Valuation of Real Properties)
Q98

As per the IGR valuation guidelines, to decide whether land recorded as agricultural is actually under cultivation (for applying the agricultural rate), the valuer should examine
1. the 7/12 extracts of the land for the last three years
2. the electricity bill
3. the property card
4. the development plan only
Answer: (A) the 7/12 extracts of the land for the last three years

The guideline requires examination of the 7/12 extracts for the preceding three years; if the land is not under cultivation or is in a developable zone, the appropriate non-agricultural/developed land rate with permissible deductions is applied.

Annual Statement of Rates · Source: IGR Maharashtra valuation guidelines: agricultural land
Q99

As per the Mumbai suburban valuation guidelines, where a plot has the potential of consuming TDR, the ASR land rate is to be
1. reduced by 40%
2. kept unchanged
3. increased by 40%
4. increased by 25%
Answer: (C) increased by 40%

The Mumbai guidelines provide that for land on which TDR can be loaded (i.e. development potential beyond basic FSI), the land rate is enhanced by 40% for valuation.

Annual Statement of Rates · Source: IGR Maharashtra valuation guidelines (Mumbai): TDR potential
Q100

In the Annual Statement of Rates, a land rate for a zone mainly reflects transactions of small developed plots. When a large undivided parcel ('bulk land') is valued, a lower unit rate is applied because:
1. Bulk land transactions are exempt from paying stamp duty
2. Its layout needs roads, open spaces, development cost and time
3. Large parcels are legally barred from having access roads
4. Large parcels are always located in no-development zones
Answer: (B) Its layout needs roads, open spaces, development cost and time

A buyer of bulk land must lay out roads and amenities, spend on development and wait to sell plots, so per sq m value is lower than for a ready small plot; the ASR deduction reflects this, much like the developer's (layout) method.

Annual Statement of Rates · Source: ASR guidelines (IGR Maharashtra) - bulk land; developer's method of valuation

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